test-en-easy.json

{"version": "v2.0", "data": [{"title": "Computational_complexity_theory", "paragraphs": [{"context": "To further highlight the difference between a problem and an instance, consider the following instance of the decision version of the traveling salesman problem: Is there a route of at most 2000 kilometres passing through all of Germany's 15 largest cities? The quantitative answer to this particular problem instance is of little use for solving other instances of the problem, such as asking for a round trip through all sites in Milan whose total length is at most 10 km. For this reason, complexity theory addresses computational problems and not particular problem instances.", "qas": [{"question": "By how many kilometers does the traveling salesman problem seek to classify a route between the 15 largest cities in Germany?", "id": "56e17e6ee3433e1400422f7f", "answers": [{"text": "2000", "answer_start": 190}, {"text": "2000", "answer_start": 190}, {"text": "2000", "answer_start": 190}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "An example of a decision problem is the following. The input is an arbitrary graph. The problem consists in deciding whether the given graph is connected, or not. The formal language associated with this decision problem is then the set of all connected graphs\u2014of course, to obtain a precise definition of this language, one has to decide how graphs are encoded as binary strings.", "qas": [{"question": "What is the term for the set of all connected graphs related to this decision problem?", "id": "56e19557e3433e1400422ff0", "answers": [{"text": "formal language", "answer_start": 167}, {"text": "The formal language", "answer_start": 163}, {"text": "The formal language associated with this decision problem", "answer_start": 163}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Upper and lower bounds are usually stated using the big O notation, which hides constant factors and smaller terms. This makes the bounds independent of the specific details of the computational model used. For instance, if T(n) = 7n2 + 15n + 40, in big O notation one would write T(n) = O(n2).", "qas": [{"question": "How would one write T(n) = 7n2 + 15n + 40 in big O notation? ", "id": "56e1bd4acd28a01900c67afe", "answers": [{"text": "T(n) = O(n2)", "answer_start": 281}, {"text": "T(n) = O(n2)", "answer_start": 281}, {"text": "T(n) = O(n2)", "answer_start": 281}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Other important complexity classes include BPP, ZPP and RP, which are defined using probabilistic Turing machines; AC and NC, which are defined using Boolean circuits; and BQP and QMA, which are defined using quantum Turing machines. #P is an important complexity class of counting problems (not decision problems). Classes like IP and AM are defined using Interactive proof systems. ALL is the class of all decision problems.", "qas": [{"question": "BQP and QMA are examples of complexity classes most commonly associated with what type of Turing machine?", "id": "56e1c4fce3433e1400423150", "answers": [{"text": "quantum", "answer_start": 209}, {"text": "quantum", "answer_start": 209}, {"text": "quantum", "answer_start": 209}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The graph isomorphism problem is the computational problem of determining whether two finite graphs are isomorphic. An important unsolved problem in complexity theory is whether the graph isomorphism problem is in P, NP-complete, or NP-intermediate. The answer is not known, but it is believed that the problem is at least not NP-complete. If graph isomorphism is NP-complete, the polynomial time hierarchy collapses to its second level. Since it is widely believed that the polynomial hierarchy does not collapse to any finite level, it is believed that graph isomorphism is not NP-complete. The best algorithm for this problem, due to Laszlo Babai and Eugene Luks has run time 2O(\u221a(n log(n))) for graphs with n vertices.", "qas": [{"question": "To what level would the polynomial time hierarchy collapse if graph isomorphism is NP-complete?", "id": "56e1e9dfe3433e14004231ff", "answers": [{"text": "second level", "answer_start": 424}, {"text": "second", "answer_start": 424}, {"text": "second", "answer_start": 424}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Many known complexity classes are suspected to be unequal, but this has not been proved. For instance P \u2286 NP \u2286 PP \u2286 PSPACE, but it is possible that P = PSPACE. If P is not equal to NP, then P is not equal to PSPACE either. Since there are many known complexity classes between P and PSPACE, such as RP, BPP, PP, BQP, MA, PH, etc., it is possible that all these complexity classes collapse to one class. Proving that any of these classes are unequal would be a major breakthrough in complexity theory.", "qas": [{"question": "Where can the complexity classes RP, BPP, PP, BQP, MA, and PH be located?", "id": "56e1ee4de3433e1400423212", "answers": [{"text": "between P and PSPACE", "answer_start": 269}, {"text": "between P and PSPACE", "answer_start": 269}, {"text": "between P and PSPACE", "answer_start": 269}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Southern_California", "paragraphs": [{"context": "Southern California, often abbreviated SoCal, is a geographic and cultural region that generally comprises California's southernmost 10 counties. The region is traditionally described as \"eight counties\", based on demographics and economic ties: Imperial, Los Angeles, Orange, Riverside, San Bernardino, San Diego, Santa Barbara, and Ventura. The more extensive 10-county definition, including Kern and San Luis Obispo counties, is also used based on historical political divisions. Southern California is a major economic center for the state of California and the United States.", "qas": [{"question": "What are the ties that best described what the \"eight counties\" are based on?", "id": "5705e26d75f01819005e76d7", "answers": [{"text": "demographics and economic ties", "answer_start": 214}, {"text": "economic", "answer_start": 231}, {"text": "demographics and economic", "answer_start": 214}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Southern California includes the heavily built-up urban area stretching along the Pacific coast from Ventura, through the Greater Los Angeles Area and the Inland Empire, and down to Greater San Diego. Southern California's population encompasses seven metropolitan areas, or MSAs: the Los Angeles metropolitan area, consisting of Los Angeles and Orange counties; the Inland Empire, consisting of Riverside and San Bernardino counties; the San Diego metropolitan area; the Oxnard\u2013Thousand Oaks\u2013Ventura metropolitan area; the Santa Barbara metro area; the San Luis Obispo metropolitan area; and the El Centro area. Out of these, three are heavy populated areas: the Los Angeles area with over 12 million inhabitants, the Riverside-San Bernardino area with over four million inhabitants, and the San Diego area with over 3 million inhabitants. For CSA metropolitan purposes, the five counties of Los Angeles, Orange, Riverside, San Bernardino, and Ventura are all combined to make up the Greater Los Angeles Area with over 17.5 million people. With over 22 million people, southern California contains roughly 60 percent of California's population.", "qas": [{"question": "How many metropolitan areas does Southern California's population encompass?", "id": "5705e3f252bb89140068966b", "answers": [{"text": "seven", "answer_start": 246}, {"text": "seven", "answer_start": 246}, {"text": "seven", "answer_start": 246}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The motion picture, television, and music industry is centered on the Los Angeles in southern California. Hollywood, a district within Los Angeles, is also a name associated with the motion picture industry. Headquartered in southern California are The Walt Disney Company (which also owns ABC), Sony Pictures, Universal, MGM, Paramount Pictures, 20th Century Fox, and Warner Brothers. Universal, Warner Brothers, and Sony also run major record companies as well.", "qas": [{"question": "Other than Universal and Warner Brothers, what other company runs a major record company?", "id": "5705eb3375f01819005e7768", "answers": [{"text": "Sony", "answer_start": 418}, {"text": "Sony", "answer_start": 418}, {"text": "Sony", "answer_start": 418}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Many locals and tourists frequent the southern California coast for its popular beaches, and the desert city of Palm Springs is popular for its resort feel and nearby open spaces.", "qas": [{"question": "Other than the desert city why do many locals and tourists frequent southern California?", "id": "5705eccb52bb8914006896b9", "answers": [{"text": "beaches", "answer_start": 80}, {"text": "for its popular beaches", "answer_start": 64}, {"text": "beaches", "answer_start": 80}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "\"Southern California\" is not a formal geographic designation, and definitions of what constitutes southern California vary. Geographically, California's north-south midway point lies at exactly 37\u00b0 9' 58.23\" latitude, around 11 miles (18 km) south of San Jose; however, this does not coincide with popular use of the term. When the state is divided into two areas (northern and southern California), the term \"southern California\" usually refers to the ten southern-most counties of the state. This definition coincides neatly with the county lines at 35\u00b0 47\u2032 28\u2033 north latitude, which form the northern borders of San Luis Obispo, Kern, and San Bernardino counties. Another definition for southern California uses Point Conception and the Tehachapi Mountains as the northern boundary.", "qas": [{"question": "Geographically speaking, where is California's north - south midway point in terms of latitude?", "id": "5705edcd52bb8914006896ca", "answers": [{"text": "37\u00b0 9' 58.23\"", "answer_start": 194}, {"text": "37\u00b0 9' 58.23\"", "answer_start": 194}, {"text": "37\u00b0 9' 58.23\"", "answer_start": 194}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "The term \"southern\" California usually refers to how many of the southern-most counties of the state?", "id": "5705edcd52bb8914006896cc", "answers": [{"text": "ten", "answer_start": 453}, {"text": "ten", "answer_start": 453}, {"text": "ten", "answer_start": 453}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Subsequently, Californios (dissatisfied with inequitable taxes and land laws) and pro-slavery southerners in the lightly populated \"Cow Counties\" of southern California attempted three times in the 1850s to achieve a separate statehood or territorial status separate from Northern California. The last attempt, the Pico Act of 1859, was passed by the California State Legislature and signed by the State governor John B. Weller. It was approved overwhelmingly by nearly 75% of voters in the proposed Territory of Colorado. This territory was to include all the counties up to the then much larger Tulare County (that included what is now Kings, most of Kern, and part of Inyo counties) and San Luis Obispo County. The proposal was sent to Washington, D.C. with a strong advocate in Senator Milton Latham. However, the secession crisis following the election of Abraham Lincoln in 1860 led to the proposal never coming to a vote.", "qas": [{"question": "How many times did southern California attempt to achieve a separate statehood?", "id": "5705f09e75f01819005e77a6", "answers": [{"text": "three", "answer_start": 179}, {"text": "three", "answer_start": 179}, {"text": "three", "answer_start": 179}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The San Bernardino-Riverside area maintains the business districts of Downtown San Bernardino, Hospitality Business/Financial Centre, University Town which are in San Bernardino and Downtown Riverside.", "qas": [{"question": "Other than Downtown San Bernardino, and University Town, what is the name of another business district in the San Bernardino-Riverside area?", "id": "57060df252bb891400689822", "answers": [{"text": "Hospitality Business/Financial Centre", "answer_start": 95}, {"text": "Downtown Riverside", "answer_start": 182}, {"text": "Hospitality Business/Financial Centre", "answer_start": 95}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Six of the seven lines of the commuter rail system, Metrolink, run out of Downtown Los Angeles, connecting Los Angeles, Ventura, San Bernardino, Riverside, Orange, and San Diego counties with the other line connecting San Bernardino, Riverside, and Orange counties directly.", "qas": [{"question": "A single line connects San Bernardino, Riverside and what other county?", "id": "5706111a52bb89140068984f", "answers": [{"text": "Orange", "answer_start": 249}, {"text": "Orange", "answer_start": 249}, {"text": "Orange", "answer_start": 249}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Sky_(United_Kingdom)", "paragraphs": [{"context": "Formed in November 1990 by the equal merger of Sky Television and British Satellite Broadcasting, BSkyB became the UK's largest digital subscription television company. Following BSkyB's 2014 acquisition of Sky Italia and a majority 90.04% interest in Sky Deutschland in November 2014, its holding company British Sky Broadcasting Group plc changed its name to Sky plc. The United Kingdom operations also changed the company name from British Sky Broadcasting Limited to Sky UK Limited, still trading as Sky.", "qas": [{"question": "What company was formed by the merger of Sky Television and British Satellite Broadcasting?", "id": "57092322efce8f15003a7db0", "answers": [{"text": "BSkyB", "answer_start": 98}, {"text": "BSkyB", "answer_start": 98}, {"text": "BSkyB", "answer_start": 98}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "Who is the UK's largest digital subscription television company?", "id": "57092322efce8f15003a7db1", "answers": [{"text": "BSkyB", "answer_start": 98}, {"text": "BSkyB", "answer_start": 98}, {"text": "BSkyB", "answer_start": 98}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "While BSkyB had been excluded from being a part of the ONdigital consortium, thereby making them a competitor by default, BSkyB was able to join ITV Digital's free-to-air replacement, Freeview, in which it holds an equal stake with the BBC, ITV, Channel 4 and National Grid Wireless. Prior to October 2005, three BSkyB channels were available on this platform: Sky News, Sky Three, and Sky Sports News. Initially BSkyB provided Sky Travel to the service. However, this was replaced by Sky Three on 31 October 2005, which was itself later re-branded as 'Pick TV' in 2011.", "qas": [{"question": "How many BSkyB channels were available to customers prior to October 2005?", "id": "57094b4f9928a814004714f8", "answers": [{"text": "three", "answer_start": 307}, {"text": "three", "answer_start": 307}, {"text": "three", "answer_start": 307}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "BSkyB initially charged additional subscription fees for using a Sky+ PVR with their service; waiving the charge for subscribers whose package included two or more premium channels. This changed as from 1 July 2007, and now customers that have Sky+ and subscribe to any BSkyB subscription package get Sky+ included at no extra charge. Customers that do not subscribe to BSkyB's channels can still pay a monthly fee to enable Sky+ functions. In January 2010 BSkyB discontinued the Sky+ Box, limited the standard Sky Box to Multiroom upgrade only and started to issue the Sky+HD Box as standard, thus giving all new subscribers the functions of Sky+. In February 2011 BSkyB discontinued the non-HD variant of its Multiroom box, offering a smaller version of the SkyHD box without Sky+ functionality. In September 2007, Sky launched a new TV advertising campaign targeting Sky+ at women. As of 31 March 2008, Sky had 3,393,000 Sky+ users.", "qas": [{"question": "WHat allows customers to get Sky+ functions if they do not subscribe to BSkyB's channels?", "id": "57094ca7efce8f15003a7dd8", "answers": [{"text": "monthly fee", "answer_start": 403}, {"text": "a monthly fee", "answer_start": 401}, {"text": "SkyHD box", "answer_start": 760}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "BSkyB utilises the VideoGuard pay-TV scrambling system owned by NDS, a Cisco Systems company. There are tight controls over use of VideoGuard decoders; they are not available as stand-alone DVB CAMs (conditional-access modules). BSkyB has design authority over all digital satellite receivers capable of receiving their service. The receivers, though designed and built by different manufacturers, must conform to the same user interface look-and-feel as all the others. This extends to the Personal video recorder (PVR) offering (branded Sky+).", "qas": [{"question": "Who has design authority over all of the digital satellite receivers that are capable of using their service?", "id": "57094d489928a8140047150d", "answers": [{"text": "BSkyB", "answer_start": 229}, {"text": "BSkyB", "answer_start": 229}, {"text": "BSkyB", "answer_start": 229}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "In 2007, BSkyB and Virgin Media became involved in a dispute over the carriage of Sky channels on cable TV. The failure to renew the existing carriage agreements negotiated with NTL and Telewest resulted in Virgin Media removing the basic channels from the network on 1 March 2007. Virgin Media claimed that BSkyB had substantially increased the asking price for the channels, a claim which BSkyB denied, on the basis that their new deal offered \"substantially more value\" by including HD channels and Video On Demand content which was not previously carried by cable.", "qas": [{"question": "What additional srevice did BSkyB offer besides HD channels that they claimed offered \"substantially more value\"?", "id": "570953a7efce8f15003a7e01", "answers": [{"text": "Video On Demand", "answer_start": 502}, {"text": "Video On Demand content", "answer_start": 502}, {"text": "HD channels and Video On Demand", "answer_start": 486}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "What additional srevice did BSkyB offer besides Video on Demand that they claimed offered \"substantially more value\"?", "id": "570953a7efce8f15003a7e02", "answers": [{"text": "HD channels", "answer_start": 486}, {"text": "HD channels", "answer_start": 486}, {"text": "HD channels", "answer_start": 486}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "On 18 November 2015, Sky announced Sky Q, a range of products and services to be available in 2016. The Sky Q range consists of three set top boxes (Sky Q, Sky Q Silver and Sky Q Mini), a broadband router (Sky Q Hub) and mobile applications. The Sky Q set top boxes introduce a new user interface, Wi-Fi hotspot functionality, Power-line and Bluetooth connectivity and a new touch-sensitive remote control. The Sky Q Mini set top boxes connect to the Sky Q Silver set top boxes with a Wi-Fi or Power-line connection rather than receive their own satellite feeds. This allows all set top boxes in a household to share recordings and other media. The Sky Q Silver set top box is capable of receiving and displaying UHD broadcasts, which Sky will introduce later in 2016.", "qas": [{"question": "What are the Sky Q mini set top boxes able to connect to?", "id": "57096505ed30961900e84083", "answers": [{"text": "Sky Q Silver set top boxes", "answer_start": 451}, {"text": "the Sky Q Silver set top boxes", "answer_start": 447}, {"text": "Sky Q Silver", "answer_start": 451}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "BSkyB launched its HDTV service, Sky+ HD, on 22 May 2006. Prior to its launch, BSkyB claimed that 40,000 people had registered to receive the HD service. In the week before the launch, rumours started to surface that BSkyB was having supply issues with its set top box (STB) from manufacturer Thomson. On Thursday 18 May 2006, and continuing through the weekend before launch, people were reporting that BSkyB had either cancelled or rescheduled its installation. Finally, the BBC reported that 17,000 customers had yet to receive the service due to failed deliveries. On 31 March 2012, Sky announced the total number of homes with Sky+HD was 4,222,000.", "qas": [{"question": "How many people were registered to receive the HD service prior to launch?", "id": "5709686c200fba1400367f78", "answers": [{"text": "40,000", "answer_start": 98}, {"text": "40,000", "answer_start": 98}, {"text": "40,000", "answer_start": 98}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "What was the name of the set top box manufacturer that BSkyB was having issues with?", "id": "5709686c200fba1400367f79", "answers": [{"text": "Thomson", "answer_start": 293}, {"text": "Thomson", "answer_start": 293}, {"text": "STB", "answer_start": 270}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "What was the number of customers that the BBC  reported had yet to receive the service due to failed deliveries?", "id": "5709686c200fba1400367f7a", "answers": [{"text": "17,000", "answer_start": 495}, {"text": "17,000", "answer_start": 495}, {"text": "17,000", "answer_start": 495}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "What was the total number of homes Sky announced that had Sky+HD in March of 2012?", "id": "5709686c200fba1400367f7b", "answers": [{"text": "4,222,000", "answer_start": 643}, {"text": "4,222,000", "answer_start": 643}, {"text": "4,222,000", "answer_start": 643}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Provided is a universal Ku band LNB (9.75/10.600 GHz) which is fitted at the end of the dish and pointed at the correct satellite constellation; most digital receivers will receive the free to air channels. Some broadcasts are free-to-air and unencrypted, some are encrypted but do not require a monthly subscription (known as free-to-view), some are encrypted and require a monthly subscription, and some are pay-per-view services. To view the encrypted content a VideoGuard UK equipped receiver (all of which are dedicated to the Sky service, and cannot be used to decrypt other services) needs to be used. Unofficial CAMs are now available to view the service, although use of them breaks the user's contract with Sky and invalidates the user's rights to use the card.", "qas": [{"question": "What service is a VideoGuard UK equipped receiver dedicated to decrypt?", "id": "57096c95200fba1400367fbf", "answers": [{"text": "Sky", "answer_start": 532}, {"text": "Sky", "answer_start": 532}, {"text": "Sky service", "answer_start": 532}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "BSkyB has no veto over the presence of channels on their EPG, with open access being an enforced part of their operating licence from Ofcom. Any channel which can get carriage on a suitable beam of a satellite at 28\u00b0 East is entitled to access to BSkyB's EPG for a fee, ranging from \u00a315\u2013100,000. Third-party channels which opt for encryption receive discounts ranging from reduced price to free EPG entries, free carriage on a BSkyB leased transponder, or actual payment for being carried. However, even in this case, BSkyB does not carry any control over the channel's content or carriage issues such as picture quality.", "qas": [{"question": "Does BSkyB carry any control over a channels content?", "id": "57096f37200fba1400367fe8", "answers": [{"text": "not", "answer_start": 529}, {"text": "not", "answer_start": 529}, {"text": "BSkyB does not carry any control", "answer_start": 518}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Virgin Media (re-branded in 2007 from NTL:Telewest) started to offer a high-definition television (HDTV) capable set top box, although from 30 November 2006 until 30 July 2009 it only carried one linear HD channel, BBC HD, after the conclusion of the ITV HD trial. Virgin Media has claimed that other HD channels were \"locked up\" or otherwise withheld from their platform, although Virgin Media did in fact have an option to carry Channel 4 HD in the future. Nonetheless, the linear channels were not offered, Virgin Media instead concentrating on its Video On Demand service to carry a modest selection of HD content. Virgin Media has nevertheless made a number of statements over the years, suggesting that more linear HD channels are on the way.", "qas": [{"question": "What was the one linear HD channel Virgin Media carried from November 2006 to July 2009?", "id": "57097141200fba1400367ffc", "answers": [{"text": "BBC HD", "answer_start": 215}, {"text": "BBC HD", "answer_start": 215}, {"text": "BBC HD", "answer_start": 215}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The agreements include fixed annual carriage fees of \u00a330m for the channels with both channel suppliers able to secure additional capped payments if their channels meet certain performance-related targets. Currently there is no indication as to whether the new deal includes the additional Video On Demand and High Definition content which had previously been offered by BSkyB. As part of the agreements, both BSkyB and Virgin Media agreed to terminate all High Court proceedings against each other relating to the carriage of their respective basic channels.", "qas": [{"question": "What company agreed to terminate high court proceedings with Virgin Media?", "id": "57097d63ed30961900e841ff", "answers": [{"text": "BSkyB", "answer_start": 409}, {"text": "BSkyB", "answer_start": 409}, {"text": "BSkyB", "answer_start": 409}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Steam_engine", "paragraphs": [{"context": "It is a logical extension of the compound engine (described above) to split the expansion into yet more stages to increase efficiency. The result is the multiple expansion engine. Such engines use either three or four expansion stages and are known as triple and quadruple expansion engines respectively. These engines use a series of cylinders of progressively increasing diameter. These cylinders are designed to divide the work into equal shares for each expansion stage. As with the double expansion engine, if space is at a premium, then two smaller cylinders may be used for the low-pressure stage. Multiple expansion engines typically had the cylinders arranged inline, but various other formations were used. In the late 19th century, the Yarrow-Schlick-Tweedy balancing 'system' was used on some marine triple expansion engines. Y-S-T engines divided the low-pressure expansion stages between two cylinders, one at each end of the engine. This allowed the crankshaft to be better balanced, resulting in a smoother, faster-responding engine which ran with less vibration. This made the 4-cylinder triple-expansion engine popular with large passenger liners (such as the Olympic class), but this was ultimately replaced by the virtually vibration-free turbine engine.[citation needed]", "qas": [{"question": "What are engines using four expansion stages known as?", "id": "57113639a58dae1900cd6d19", "answers": [{"text": "quadruple expansion engines", "answer_start": 263}, {"text": "quadruple", "answer_start": 263}, {"text": "quadruple expansion engines", "answer_start": 263}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The history of the steam engine stretches back as far as the first century AD; the first recorded rudimentary steam engine being the aeolipile described by Greek mathematician Hero of Alexandria. In the following centuries, the few steam-powered \"engines\" known were, like the aeolipile, essentially experimental devices used by inventors to demonstrate the properties of steam. A rudimentary steam turbine device was described by Taqi al-Din in 1551 and by Giovanni Branca in 1629. Jer\u00f3nimo de Ayanz y Beaumont received patents in 1606 for fifty steam powered inventions, including a water pump for draining inundated mines. Denis Papin, a Huguenot refugee, did some useful work on the steam digester in 1679, and first used a piston to raise weights in 1690.", "qas": [{"question": "In what year did Jer\u00f3nimo de Ayanz y Beaumont patent a water pump for draining mines?", "id": "57113c6da58dae1900cd6d36", "answers": [{"text": "1606", "answer_start": 532}, {"text": "1606", "answer_start": 532}, {"text": "1606", "answer_start": 532}, {"text": "1606", "answer_start": 532}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The final major evolution of the steam engine design was the use of steam turbines starting in the late part of the 19th century. Steam turbines are generally more efficient than reciprocating piston type steam engines (for outputs above several hundred horsepower), have fewer moving parts, and provide rotary power directly instead of through a connecting rod system or similar means. Steam turbines virtually replaced reciprocating engines in electricity generating stations early in the 20th century, where their efficiency, higher speed appropriate to generator service, and smooth rotation were advantages. Today most electric power is provided by steam turbines. In the United States 90% of the electric power is produced in this way using a variety of heat sources. Steam turbines were extensively applied for propulsion of large ships throughout most of the 20th century.", "qas": [{"question": "Above what horsepower are steam turbines usually more efficient than steam engines that use reciprocating pistons?", "id": "571142b3a58dae1900cd6d5c", "answers": [{"text": "several hundred", "answer_start": 238}, {"text": "several hundred horsepower", "answer_start": 238}, {"text": "several hundred", "answer_start": 238}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The heat required for boiling the water and supplying the steam can be derived from various sources, most commonly from burning combustible materials with an appropriate supply of air in a closed space (called variously combustion chamber, firebox). In some cases the heat source is a nuclear reactor, geothermal energy, solar energy or waste heat from an internal combustion engine or industrial process. In the case of model or toy steam engines, the heat source can be an electric heating element.", "qas": [{"question": "Along with nuclear, geothermal and internal combustion engine waste heat, what sort of energy might supply the heat for a steam engine?", "id": "571144d1a58dae1900cd6d70", "answers": [{"text": "solar", "answer_start": 321}, {"text": "solar", "answer_start": 321}, {"text": "solar", "answer_start": 321}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Where CHP is not used, steam turbines in power stations use surface condensers as a cold sink. The condensers are cooled by water flow from oceans, rivers, lakes, and often by cooling towers which evaporate water to provide cooling energy removal. The resulting condensed hot water output from the condenser is then put back into the boiler via a pump. A dry type cooling tower is similar to an automobile radiator and is used in locations where water is costly. Evaporative (wet) cooling towers use the rejected heat to evaporate water; this water is kept separate from the condensate, which circulates in a closed system and returns to the boiler. Such towers often have visible plumes due to the evaporated water condensing into droplets carried up by the warm air. Evaporative cooling towers need less water flow than \"once-through\" cooling by river or lake water; a 700 megawatt coal-fired power plant may use about 3600 cubic metres of make-up water every hour for evaporative cooling, but would need about twenty times as much if cooled by river water.[citation needed]", "qas": [{"question": "About how many cubic meters of make-up water is used by a 700-megawatt coal-fired power plant for evaporative cooling hourly?", "id": "57115c7450c2381900b54aa1", "answers": [{"text": "3600", "answer_start": 921}, {"text": "3600", "answer_start": 921}, {"text": "3600", "answer_start": 921}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Using boiling water to produce mechanical motion goes back over 2000 years, but early devices were not practical. The Spanish inventor Jer\u00f3nimo de Ayanz y Beaumont obtained the first patent for a steam engine in 1606. In 1698 Thomas Savery patented a steam pump that used steam in direct contact with the water being pumped. Savery's steam pump used condensing steam to create a vacuum and draw water into a chamber, and then applied pressurized steam to further pump the water. Thomas Newcomen's atmospheric engine was the first commercial true steam engine using a piston, and was used in 1712 for pumping in a mine.", "qas": [{"question": "In what year did Jer\u00f3nimo de Ayanz y Beaumont receive a steam engine patent?", "id": "57115f652419e314009555bb", "answers": [{"text": "1606", "answer_start": 212}, {"text": "1606", "answer_start": 212}, {"text": "1606", "answer_start": 212}, {"text": "1606", "answer_start": 212}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The weight of boilers and condensers generally makes the power-to-weight ratio of a steam plant lower than for internal combustion engines. For mobile applications steam has been largely superseded by internal combustion engines or electric motors. However, most electric power is generated using steam turbine plant, so that indirectly the world's industry is still dependent on steam power. Recent concerns about fuel sources and pollution have incited a renewed interest in steam both as a component of cogeneration processes and as a prime mover. This is becoming known as the Advanced Steam movement.[citation needed]", "qas": [{"question": "What is the power-to-weight ratio of a steam plant compared to that of an internal combustion engine?", "id": "5711607f2419e314009555cd", "answers": [{"text": "lower", "answer_start": 96}, {"text": "lower", "answer_start": 96}, {"text": "lower", "answer_start": 96}, {"text": "lower", "answer_start": 96}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The next major step occurred when James Watt developed (1763\u20131775) an improved version of Newcomen's engine, with a separate condenser. Boulton and Watt's early engines used half as much coal as John Smeaton's improved version of Newcomen's. Newcomen's and Watt's early engines were \"atmospheric\". They were powered by air pressure pushing a piston into the partial vacuum generated by condensing steam, instead of the pressure of expanding steam. The engine cylinders had to be large because the only usable force acting on them was due to atmospheric pressure.", "qas": [{"question": "Compared to Smeaton's improvement on Newcomen's engine, how much coal did Watt's engine use?", "id": "5711619950c2381900b54ab1", "answers": [{"text": "half", "answer_start": 174}, {"text": "half as much", "answer_start": 174}, {"text": "half as much coal", "answer_start": 174}, {"text": "half", "answer_start": 174}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Steam engines frequently possess two independent mechanisms for ensuring that the pressure in the boiler does not go too high; one may be adjusted by the user, the second is typically designed as an ultimate fail-safe. Such safety valves traditionally used a simple lever to restrain a plug valve in the top of a boiler. One end of the lever carried a weight or spring that restrained the valve against steam pressure. Early valves could be adjusted by engine drivers, leading to many accidents when a driver fastened the valve down to allow greater steam pressure and more power from the engine. The more recent type of safety valve uses an adjustable spring-loaded valve, which is locked such that operators may not tamper with its adjustment unless a seal illegally is broken. This arrangement is considerably safer.[citation needed]", "qas": [{"question": "Along with a desire for more steam pressure, what were early drivers looking to generate when they fastened safety valves down?", "id": "5711623e50c2381900b54abd", "answers": [{"text": "more power", "answer_start": 569}, {"text": "more power", "answer_start": 569}, {"text": "greater steam pressure and more power", "answer_start": 542}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "One of the principal advantages the Rankine cycle holds over others is that during the compression stage relatively little work is required to drive the pump, the working fluid being in its liquid phase at this point. By condensing the fluid, the work required by the pump consumes only 1% to 3% of the turbine power and contributes to a much higher efficiency for a real cycle. The benefit of this is lost somewhat due to the lower heat addition temperature. Gas turbines, for instance, have turbine entry temperatures approaching 1500 \u00b0C. Nonetheless, the efficiencies of actual large steam cycles and large modern gas turbines are fairly well matched.[citation needed]", "qas": [{"question": "How much turbine power is consumed by the pump while the work fluid is condensed?", "id": "5711648850c2381900b54ac5", "answers": [{"text": "1% to 3%", "answer_start": 287}, {"text": "1% to 3%", "answer_start": 287}, {"text": "1% to 3%", "answer_start": 287}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "European_Union_law", "paragraphs": [{"context": "European Union law is a body of treaties and legislation, such as Regulations and Directives, which have direct effect or indirect effect on the laws of European Union member states. The three sources of European Union law are primary law, secondary law and supplementary law. The main sources of primary law are the Treaties establishing the European Union. Secondary sources include regulations and directives which are based on the Treaties. The legislature of the European Union is principally composed of the European Parliament and the Council of the European Union, which under the Treaties may establish secondary law to pursue the objective set out in the Treaties.", "qas": [{"question": "What effect does European Union law have on laws of member states?", "id": "5725c28a271a42140099d14e", "answers": [{"text": "direct effect or indirect effect", "answer_start": 105}, {"text": "direct effect or indirect effect on the laws of European Union member states", "answer_start": 105}, {"text": "direct effect or indirect effect", "answer_start": 105}, {"text": "direct effect or indirect effect", "answer_start": 105}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "What are the three main sources of European Union law?", "id": "57268b43dd62a815002e88f0", "answers": [{"text": "primary law, secondary law and supplementary law", "answer_start": 227}, {"text": "primary law, secondary law and supplementary law", "answer_start": 227}, {"text": "primary law, secondary law and supplementary law", "answer_start": 227}, {"text": "primary law, secondary law and supplementary law", "answer_start": 227}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "European Union law is applied by the courts of member states and the Court of Justice of the European Union. Where the laws of member states provide for lesser rights European Union law can be enforced by the courts of member states. In case of European Union law which should have been transposed into the laws of member states, such as Directives, the European Commission can take proceedings against the member state under the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union. The European Court of Justice is the highest court able to interpret European Union law. Supplementary sources of European Union law include case law by the Court of Justice, international law and general principles of European Union law.", "qas": [{"question": "Who can enforce the European Union law when member states provide lesser rights?", "id": "5725bbec271a42140099d0d2", "answers": [{"text": "courts of member states", "answer_start": 209}, {"text": "the courts of member states", "answer_start": 205}, {"text": "the courts of member states", "answer_start": 205}, {"text": "the courts of member states", "answer_start": 205}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "Under what treaty can the European Commission take action against member states?", "id": "5725c3a9ec44d21400f3d504", "answers": [{"text": "the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union", "answer_start": 426}, {"text": "the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union", "answer_start": 426}, {"text": "the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union.", "answer_start": 426}, {"text": "the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union", "answer_start": 426}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The primary law of the EU consists mainly of the founding treaties, the \"core\" treaties being the Treaty on European Union (TEU) and the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union (TFEU). The Treaties contain formal and substantive provisions, which frame policies of the European Union institutions and determine the division of competences between the European Union and its member states. The TEU establishes that European Union law applies to the metropolitan territories of the member states, as well as certain islands and overseas territories, including Madeira, the Canary Islands and the French overseas departments. European Union law also applies in territories where a member state is responsible for external relations, for example Gibraltar and the \u00c5land islands. The TEU allows the European Council to make specific provisions for regions, as for example done for customs matters in Gibraltar and Saint-Pierre-et-Miquelon. The TEU specifically excludes certain regions, for example the Faroe Islands, from the jurisdiction of European Union law. Treaties apply as soon as they enter into force, unless stated otherwise, and are generally concluded for an unlimited period. The TEU provides that commitments entered into by the member states between themselves before the treaty was signed no longer apply.[vague] All EU member states are regarded as subject to the general obligation of the principle of cooperation, as stated in the TEU, whereby member states are obliged not to take measure which could jeopardise the attainment of the TEU objectives. The Court of Justice of the European Union can interpret the Treaties, but it cannot rule on their validity, which is subject to international law. Individuals may rely on primary law in the Court of Justice of the European Union if the Treaty provisions have a direct effect and they are sufficiently clear, precise and unconditional.", "qas": [{"question": "What are some examples of territories where a member state is responsible for external relations?", "id": "57268d2ddd62a815002e894f", "answers": [{"text": "Gibraltar and the \u00c5land islands", "answer_start": 750}, {"text": "Gibraltar and the \u00c5land islands", "answer_start": 750}, {"text": "Gibraltar and the \u00c5land islands", "answer_start": 750}, {"text": "Gibraltar and the \u00c5land islands", "answer_start": 750}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "To make new legislation, TFEU article 294 defines the \"ordinary legislative procedure\" that applies for most EU acts. The essence is there are three readings, starting with a Commission proposal, where the Parliament must vote by a majority of all MEPs (not just those present) to block or suggest changes, and the Council must vote by qualified majority to approve changes, but by unanimity to block Commission amendment. Where the different institutions cannot agree at any stage, a \"Conciliation Committee\" is convened, representing MEPs, ministers and the Commission to try and get agreement on a joint text: if this works, it will be sent back to the Parliament and Council to approve by absolute and qualified majority. This means, legislation can be blocked by a majority in Parliament, a minority in the Council, and a majority in the Commission: it is harder to change EU law than stay the same. A different procedure exists for budgets. For \"enhanced cooperation\" among a sub-set of at least member states, authorisation must be given by the Council. Member state governments should be informed by the Commission at the outset before any proposals start the legislative procedure. The EU as a whole can only act within its power set out in the Treaties. TEU articles 4 and 5 state that powers remain with the member states unless they have been conferred, although there is a debate about the Kompetenz-Kompetenz question: who ultimately has the \"competence\" to define the EU's \"competence\". Many member state courts believe they decide, other member state Parliaments believe they decide, while within the EU, the Court of Justice believes it has the final say.", "qas": [{"question": "What type of vote must the Parliament have to either block or suggest changes to the Commission's proposals?", "id": "572656e4dd62a815002e81fa", "answers": [{"text": "a majority", "answer_start": 230}, {"text": "a Commission proposal", "answer_start": 173}, {"text": "a Commission proposal", "answer_start": 173}, {"text": "a Commission proposal", "answer_start": 173}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "While constitutional law concerns the European Union's governance structure, administrative law binds EU institutions and member states to follow the law. Both member states and the Commission have a general legal right or \"standing\" (locus standi) to bring claims against EU institutions and other member states for breach of the treaties. From the EU's foundation, the Court of Justice also held that the Treaties allowed citizens or corporations to bring claims against EU and member state institutions for violation of the Treaties and Regulations, if they were properly interpreted as creating rights and obligations. However, under Directives, citizens or corporations were said in 1986 to not be allowed to bring claims against other non-state parties. This meant courts of member states were not bound to apply an EU law where a national rule conflicted, even though the member state government could be sued, if it would impose an obligation on another citizen or corporation. These rules on \"direct effect\" limit the extent to which member state courts are bound to administer EU law. All actions by EU institutions can be subject to judicial review, and judged by standards of proportionality, particularly where general principles of law, or fundamental rights are engaged. The remedy for a claimant where there has been a breach of the law is often monetary damages, but courts can also require specific performance or will grant an injunction, in order to ensure the law is effective as possible.", "qas": [{"question": "During what year were citizens or corporations said to not be able to bring claims against other non state parties?", "id": "57269aa65951b619008f77ac", "answers": [{"text": "1986", "answer_start": 688}, {"text": "1986", "answer_start": 688}, {"text": "1986", "answer_start": 688}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "While the Treaties and Regulations will have direct effect (if clear, unconditional and immediate), Directives do not generally give citizens (as opposed to the member state) standing to sue other citizens. In theory, this is because TFEU article 288 says Directives are addressed to the member states and usually \"leave to the national authorities the choice of form and methods\" to implement. In part this reflects that directives often create minimum standards, leaving member states to apply higher standards. For example, the Working Time Directive requires that every worker has at least 4 weeks paid holidays each year, but most member states require more than 28 days in national law. However, on the current position adopted by the Court of Justice, citizens have standing to make claims based on national laws that implement Directives, but not from Directives themselves. Directives do not have so called \"horizontal\" direct effect (i.e. between non-state parties). This view was instantly controversial, and in the early 1990s three Advocate Generals persuasively argued that Directives should create rights and duties for all citizens. The Court of Justice refused, but there are five large exceptions.", "qas": [{"question": "How many paid holiday days does the Working Time directive require workers to have each year?", "id": "57269cc3dd62a815002e8b13", "answers": [{"text": "4 weeks", "answer_start": 594}, {"text": "4 weeks paid holidays each year", "answer_start": 594}, {"text": "4 weeks paid", "answer_start": 594}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "First, if a Directive's deadline for implementation is not met, the member state cannot enforce conflicting laws, and a citizen may rely on the Directive in such an action (so called \"vertical\" direct effect). So, in Pubblico Ministero v Ratti because the Italian government had failed to implement a Directive 73/173/EEC on packaging and labelling solvents by the deadline, it was estopped from enforcing a conflicting national law from 1963 against Mr Ratti's solvent and varnish business. A member state could \"not rely, as against individuals, on its own failure to perform the obligations which the Directive entails.\" Second, a citizen or company can invoke a Directive, not just in a dispute with a public authority, but in a dispute with another citizen or company. So, in CIA Security v Signalson and Securitel the Court of Justice held that a business called CIA Security could defend itself from allegations by competitors that it had not complied with a Belgian decree from 1991 about alarm systems, on the basis that it had not been notified to the Commission as a Directive required. Third, if a Directive gives expression to a \"general principle\" of EU law, it can be invoked between private non-state parties before its deadline for implementation. This follows from K\u00fcc\u00fckdeveci v Swedex GmbH & Co KG where the German Civil Code \u00a7622 stated that the years people worked under the age of 25 would not count towards the increasing statutory notice before dismissal. Ms K\u00fcc\u00fckdeveci worked for 10 years, from age 18 to 28, for Swedex GmbH & Co KG before her dismissal. She claimed that the law not counting her years under age 25 was unlawful age discrimination under the Employment Equality Framework Directive. The Court of Justice held that the Directive could be relied on by her because equality was also a general principle of EU law. Third, if the defendant is an emanation of the state, even if not central government, it can still be bound by Directives. In Foster v British Gas plc the Court of Justice held that Mrs Foster was entitled to bring a sex discrimination claim against her employer, British Gas plc, which made women retire at age 60 and men at 65, if (1) pursuant to a state measure, (2) it provided a public service, and (3) had special powers. This could also be true if the enterprise is privatised, as it was held with a water company that was responsible for basic water provision.", "qas": [{"question": "How long did Ms Kucukdeveci work for Swedex Gmbh & Co KG before she was dismissed?", "id": "57269e3bf1498d1400e8e518", "answers": [{"text": "10 years", "answer_start": 1506}, {"text": "10 years", "answer_start": 1506}, {"text": "10 years", "answer_start": 1506}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Fourth, national courts have a duty to interpret domestic law \"as far as possible in the light of the wording and purpose of the directive\". Textbooks (though not the Court itself) often called this \"indirect effect\". In Marleasing SA v La Comercial SA the Court of Justice held that a Spanish Court had to interpret its general Civil Code provisions, on contracts lacking cause or defrauding creditors, to conform with the First Company Law Directive article 11, that required incorporations would only be nullified for a fixed list of reasons. The Court of Justice quickly acknowledged that the duty of interpretation cannot contradict plain words in a national statute. But, fifth, if a member state has failed to implement a Directive, a citizen may not be able to bring claims against other non-state parties, but can sue the member state itself for failure to implement the law. So, in Francovich v Italy, the Italian government had failed to set up an insurance fund for employees to claim unpaid wages if their employers had gone insolvent, as the Insolvency Protection Directive required. Francovich, the former employee of a bankrupt Venetian firm, was therefore allowed to claim 6 million Lira from the Italian government in damages for his loss. The Court of Justice held that if a Directive would confer identifiable rights on individuals, and there is a causal link between a member state's violation of EU and a claimant's loss, damages must be paid. The fact that the incompatible law is an Act of Parliament is no defence.", "qas": [{"question": "What does the First Company Law Directive article 11 require?", "id": "57269f3ef1498d1400e8e535", "answers": [{"text": "incorporations would only be nullified for a fixed list of reasons", "answer_start": 478}, {"text": "incorporations would only be nullified for a fixed list of reasons", "answer_start": 478}, {"text": "incorporations would only be nullified for a fixed list of reasons", "answer_start": 478}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The concept of legal certainty is recognised one of the general principles of European Union law by the European Court of Justice since the 1960s. It is an important general principle of international law and public law, which predates European Union law. As a general principle in European Union law it means that the law must be certain, in that it is clear and precise, and its legal implications foreseeable, specially when applied to financial obligations. The adoption of laws which will have legal effect in the European Union must have a proper legal basis. Legislation in member states which implements European Union law must be worded so that it is clearly understandable by those who are subject to the law. In European Union law the general principle of legal certainty prohibits Ex post facto laws, i.e. laws should not take effect before they are published. The doctrine of legitimate expectation, which has its roots in the principles of legal certainty and good faith, is also a central element of the general principle of legal certainty in European Union law. The legitimate expectation doctrine holds that and that \"those who act in good faith on the basis of law as it is or seems to be should not be frustrated in their expectations\".", "qas": [{"question": "What must the adoption of laws which will have legal effect in the EU have?", "id": "5726a14c708984140094cc53", "answers": [{"text": "a proper legal basis", "answer_start": 544}, {"text": "a proper legal basis", "answer_start": 544}, {"text": "a proper legal basis", "answer_start": 544}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The 2007 Lisbon Treaty explicitly recognised fundamental rights by providing in Article 6(1) that \"The Union recognises the rights, freedoms and principles set out in the Charter of Fundamental Rights of the European Union of 7 December 2000, as adopted at Strasbourg on 12 December 2007, which shall have the same legal value as the Treaties.\" Therefore, the Charter of Fundamental Rights of the European Union has become an integral part of European Union law, codifying the fundamental rights which were previously considered general principles of European Union law. In effect, after the Lisbon Treaty, the Charter and the Convention now co-exist under European Union law, though the former is enforced by the European Court of Justice in relation to European Union measures, and the latter by the European Court of Human Rights in relation to measures by member states.", "qas": [{"question": "After the Lisbon treaty, the Charter and the Convention now co-exist under what?", "id": "5726a34bf1498d1400e8e5a0", "answers": [{"text": "European Union law", "answer_start": 657}, {"text": "European Union law", "answer_start": 657}, {"text": "European Union law", "answer_start": 657}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "While the concept of a \"social market economy\" was only introduced into EU law in 2007, free movement and trade were central to European development since the Treaty of Rome 1957. According to the standard theory of comparative advantage, two countries can both benefit from trade even if one of them has a less productive economy in all respects. Like in other regional organisations such as the North American Free Trade Association, or the World Trade Organisation, breaking down barriers to trade, and enhancing free movement of goods, services, labour and capital, is meant to reduce consumer prices. It was originally theorised that a free trade area had a tendency to give way to a customs union, which led to a common market, then monetary union, then union of monetary and fiscal policy, political and eventually a full union characteristic of a federal state. In Europe, however, those stages were considerably mixed, and it remains unclear whether the \"endgame\" should be the same as a state, traditionally understood. In practice free trade, without standards to ensure fair trade, can benefit some people and groups within countries (particularly big business) much more than others, but will burden people who lack bargaining power in an expanding market, particularly workers, consumers, small business, developing industries, and communities. The Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union articles 28 to 37 establish the principle of free movement of goods in the EU, while articles 45 to 66 require free movement of persons, services and capital. These so-called \"four freedoms\" were thought to be inhibited by physical barriers (e.g. customs), technical barriers (e.g. differing laws on safety, consumer or environmental standards) and fiscal barriers (e.g. different Value Added Tax rates). The tension in the law is that the free movement and trade is not supposed to spill over into a licence for unrestricted commercial profit. The Treaties limit free trade, to prioritise other values such as public health, consumer protection, labour rights, fair competition, and environmental improvement. Increasingly the Court of Justice has taken the view that the specific goals of free trade are underpinned by the general aims of the treaty for improvement of people's well being.", "qas": [{"question": "When was the concept of a social market economy introduced into EU law?", "id": "5726b58f5951b619008f7b55", "answers": [{"text": "2007", "answer_start": 82}, {"text": "2007", "answer_start": 82}, {"text": "2007", "answer_start": 82}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Often rules apply to all goods neutrally, but may have a greater practical effect on imports than domestic products. For such \"indirect\" discriminatory (or \"indistinctly applicable\") measures the Court of Justice has developed more justifications: either those in article 36, or additional \"mandatory\" or \"overriding\" requirements such as consumer protection, improving labour standards, protecting the environment, press diversity, fairness in commerce, and more: the categories are not closed. In the most famous case Rewe-Zentral AG v Bundesmonopol f\u00fcr Branntwein, the Court of Justice found that a German law requiring all spirits and liqueurs (not just imported ones) to have a minimum alcohol content of 25 per cent was contrary to TFEU article 34, because it had a greater negative effect on imports. German liqueurs were over 25 per cent alcohol, but Cassis de Dijon, which Rewe-Zentrale AG wished to import from France, only had 15 to 20 per cent alcohol. The Court of Justice rejected the German government's arguments that the measure proportionately protected public health under TFEU article 36, because stronger beverages were available and adequate labelling would be enough for consumers to understand what they bought. This rule primarily applies to requirements about a product's content or packaging. In Walter Rau Lebensmittelwerke v De Smedt PVBA the Court of Justice found that a Belgian law requiring all margarine to be in cube shaped packages infringed article 34, and was not justified by the pursuit of consumer protection. The argument that Belgians would believe it was butter if it was not cube shaped was disproportionate: it would \"considerably exceed the requirements of the object in view\" and labelling would protect consumers \"just as effectively\". In a 2003 case, Commission v Italy Italian law required that cocoa products that included other vegetable fats could not be labelled as \"chocolate\". It had to be \"chocolate substitute\". All Italian chocolate was made from cocoa butter alone, but British, Danish and Irish manufacturers used other vegetable fats. They claimed the law infringed article 34. The Court of Justice held that a low content of vegetable fat did not justify a \"chocolate substitute\" label. This was derogatory in the consumers' eyes. A \u2018neutral and objective statement\u2019 was enough to protect consumers. If member states place considerable obstacles on the use of a product, this can also infringe article 34. So, in a 2009 case, Commission v Italy, the Court of Justice held that an Italian law prohibiting motorcycles or mopeds pulling trailers infringed article 34. Again, the law applied neutrally to everyone, but disproportionately affected importers, because Italian companies did not make trailers. This was not a product requirement, but the Court reasoned that the prohibition would deter people from buying it: it would have \"a considerable influence on the behaviour of consumers\" that \"affects the access of that product to the market\". It would require justification under article 36, or as a mandatory requirement.", "qas": [{"question": " In the 2009 Commission v Italy, case, the Court of Justice held that an Italian low prohibiting what infringed article 34?", "id": "5726b929f1498d1400e8e8ec", "answers": [{"text": "motorcycles or mopeds pulling trailers", "answer_start": 2568}, {"text": "motorcycles or mopeds pulling trailers", "answer_start": 2568}, {"text": "motorcycles or mopeds pulling trailers", "answer_start": 2568}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The Free Movement of Workers Regulation articles 1 to 7 set out the main provisions on equal treatment of workers. First, articles 1 to 4 generally require that workers can take up employment, conclude contracts, and not suffer discrimination compared to nationals of the member state. In a famous case, the Belgian Football Association v Bosman, a Belgian footballer named Jean-Marc Bosman claimed that he should be able to transfer from R.F.C. de Li\u00e8ge to USL Dunkerque when his contract finished, regardless of whether Dunkerque could afford to pay Li\u00e8ge the habitual transfer fees. The Court of Justice held \"the transfer rules constitute[d] an obstacle to free movement\" and were unlawful unless they could be justified in the public interest, but this was unlikely. In Groener v Minister for Education the Court of Justice accepted that a requirement to speak Gaelic to teach in a Dublin design college could be justified as part of the public policy of promoting the Irish language, but only if the measure was not disproportionate. By contrast in Angonese v Cassa di Risparmio di Bolzano SpA a bank in Bolzano, Italy, was not allowed to require Mr Angonese to have a bilingual certificate that could only be obtained in Bolzano. The Court of Justice, giving \"horizontal\" direct effect to TFEU article 45, reasoned that people from other countries would have little chance of acquiring the certificate, and because it was \"impossible to submit proof of the required linguistic knowledge by any other means\", the measure was disproportionate. Second, article 7(2) requires equal treatment in respect of tax. In Finanzamt K\u00f6ln Altstadt v Schumacker the Court of Justice held that it contravened TFEU art 45 to deny tax benefits (e.g. for married couples, and social insurance expense deductions) to a man who worked in Germany, but was resident in Belgium when other German residents got the benefits. By contrast in Weigel v Finanzlandesdirektion f\u00fcr Vorarlberg the Court of Justice rejected Mr Weigel's claim that a re-registration charge upon bringing his car to Austria violated his right to free movement. Although the tax was \"likely to have a negative bearing on the decision of migrant workers to exercise their right to freedom of movement\", because the charge applied equally to Austrians, in absence of EU legislation on the matter it had to be regarded as justified. Third, people must receive equal treatment regarding \"social advantages\", although the Court has approved residential qualifying periods. In Hendrix v Employee Insurance Institute the Court of Justice held that a Dutch national was not entitled to continue receiving incapacity benefits when he moved to Belgium, because the benefit was \"closely linked to the socio-economic situation\" of the Netherlands. Conversely, in Geven v Land Nordrhein-Westfalen the Court of Justice held that a Dutch woman living in the Netherlands, but working between 3 and 14 hours a week in Germany, did not have a right to receive German child benefits, even though the wife of a man who worked full-time in Germany but was resident in Austria could. The general justifications for limiting free movement in TFEU article 45(3) are \"public policy, public security or public health\", and there is also a general exception in article 45(4) for \"employment in the public service\".", "qas": [{"question": "What language did the Court of Justice accept to be required to teach in a Dublin college in Groner v Minister for Education?", "id": "5726bc1add62a815002e8ea8", "answers": [{"text": "Gaelic", "answer_start": 866}, {"text": "Gaelic", "answer_start": 866}, {"text": "Gaelic", "answer_start": 866}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "As well as creating rights for \"workers\" who generally lack bargaining power in the market, the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union also protects the \"freedom of establishment\" in article 49, and \"freedom to provide services\" in article 56. In Gebhard v Consiglio dell\u2019Ordine degli Avvocati e Procuratori di Milano the Court of Justice held that to be \"established\" means to participate in economic life \"on a stable and continuous basis\", while providing \"services\" meant pursuing activity more \"on a temporary basis\". This meant that a lawyer from Stuttgart, who had set up chambers in Milan and was censured by the Milan Bar Council for not having registered, was entitled to bring a claim under for establishment freedom, rather than service freedom. However, the requirements to be registered in Milan before being able to practice would be allowed if they were non-discriminatory, \"justified by imperative requirements in the general interest\" and proportionately applied. All people or entities that engage in economic activity, particularly the self-employed, or \"undertakings\" such as companies or firms, have a right to set up an enterprise without unjustified restrictions. The Court of Justice has held that both a member state government and a private party can hinder freedom of establishment, so article 49 has both \"vertical\" and \"horizontal\" direct effect. In Reyners v Belgium the Court of Justice held that a refusal to admit a lawyer to the Belgian bar because he lacked Belgian nationality was unjustified. TFEU article 49 says states are exempt from infringing others' freedom of establishment when they exercise \"official authority\", but this did an advocate's work (as opposed to a court's) was not official. By contrast in Commission v Italy the Court of Justice held that a requirement for lawyers in Italy to comply with maximum tariffs unless there was an agreement with a client was not a restriction. The Grand Chamber of the Court of Justice held the Commission had not proven that this had any object or effect of limiting practitioners from entering the market. Therefore, there was no prima facie infringement freedom of establishment that needed to be justified.", "qas": [{"question": "In Gebhard v Consiglio...Milano, the requirements to be registered in Milan before being able to practice law would be allowed under what conditions?", "id": "5726c002708984140094d074", "answers": [{"text": "if they were non-discriminatory", "answer_start": 866}, {"text": "if they were non-discriminatory, \"justified by imperative requirements in the general interest\" and proportionately applied", "answer_start": 866}, {"text": "participate in economic life \"on a stable and continuous basis\"", "answer_start": 387}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The \"freedom to provide services\" under TFEU article 56 applies to people who give services \"for remuneration\", especially commercial or professional activity. For example, in Van Binsbergen v Bestuur van de Bedrijfvereniging voor de Metaalnijverheid a Dutch lawyer moved to Belgium while advising a client in a social security case, and was told he could not continue because Dutch law said only people established in the Netherlands could give legal advice. The Court of Justice held that the freedom to provide services applied, it was directly effective, and the rule was probably unjustified: having an address in the member state would be enough to pursue the legitimate aim of good administration of justice. The Court of Justice has held that secondary education falls outside the scope of article 56, because usually the state funds it, though higher education does not. Health care generally counts as a service. In Geraets-Smits v Stichting Ziekenfonds Mrs Geraets-Smits claimed she should be reimbursed by Dutch social insurance for costs of receiving treatment in Germany. The Dutch health authorities regarded the treatment unnecessary, so she argued this restricted the freedom (of the German health clinic) to provide services. Several governments submitted that hospital services should not be regarded as economic, and should not fall within article 56. But the Court of Justice held health was a \"service\" even though the government (rather than the service recipient) paid for the service. National authorities could be justified in refusing to reimburse patients for medical services abroad if the health care received at home was without undue delay, and it followed \"international medical science\" on which treatments counted as normal and necessary. The Court requires that the individual circumstances of a patient justify waiting lists, and this is also true in the context of the UK's National Health Service. Aside from public services, another sensitive field of services are those classified as illegal. Josemans v Burgemeester van Maastricht held that the Netherlands' regulation of cannabis consumption, including the prohibitions by some municipalities on tourists (but not Dutch nationals) going to coffee shops, fell outside article 56 altogether. The Court of Justice reasoned that narcotic drugs were controlled in all member states, and so this differed from other cases where prostitution or other quasi-legal activity was subject to restriction. If an activity does fall within article 56, a restriction can be justified under article 52 or overriding requirements developed by the Court of Justice. In Alpine Investments BV v Minister van Financi\u00ebn a business that sold commodities futures (with Merrill Lynch and another banking firms) attempted to challenge a Dutch law that prohibiting cold calling customers. The Court of Justice held the Dutch prohibition pursued a legitimate aim to prevent \"undesirable developments in securities trading\" including protecting the consumer from aggressive sales tactics, thus maintaining confidence in the Dutch markets. In Omega Spielhallen GmbH v Bonn a \"laserdrome\" business was banned by the Bonn council. It bought fake laser gun services from a UK firm called Pulsar Ltd, but residents had protested against \"playing at killing\" entertainment. The Court of Justice held that the German constitutional value of human dignity, which underpinned the ban, did count as a justified restriction on freedom to provide services. In Liga Portuguesa de Futebol v Santa Casa da Miseric\u00f3rdia de Lisboa the Court of Justice also held that the state monopoly on gambling, and a penalty for a Gibraltar firm that had sold internet gambling services, was justified to prevent fraud and gambling where people's views were highly divergent. The ban was proportionate as this was an appropriate and necessary way to tackle the serious problems of fraud that arise over the internet. In the Services Directive a group of justifications were codified in article 16 that the case law has developed.", "qas": [{"question": "Why was the Dutch lawyer who moved to Belgium while advising a client in a social society case told he couldn't continue?", "id": "5726c3da708984140094d0da", "answers": [{"text": "because Dutch law said only people established in the Netherlands could give legal advice", "answer_start": 369}, {"text": "Dutch law said only people established in the Netherlands could give legal advice", "answer_start": 377}, {"text": "Dutch law said only people established in the Netherlands could give legal advice", "answer_start": 377}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "What did the Court of Justice reason were controlled in all member states in Josemans v Burgemeester van Maastricht?", "id": "5726c3da708984140094d0db", "answers": [{"text": "narcotic drugs", "answer_start": 2318}, {"text": "narcotic drugs", "answer_start": 2318}, {"text": "narcotic drugs", "answer_start": 2318}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "In regard to companies, the Court of Justice held in R (Daily Mail and General Trust plc) v HM Treasury that member states could restrict a company moving its seat of business, without infringing TFEU article 49. This meant the Daily Mail newspaper's parent company could not evade tax by shifting its residence to the Netherlands without first settling its tax bills in the UK. The UK did not need to justify its action, as rules on company seats were not yet harmonised. By contrast, in Centros Ltd v Erhversus-og Selkabssyrelsen the Court of Justice found that a UK limited company operating in Denmark could not be required to comply with Denmark's minimum share capital rules. UK law only required \u00a31 of capital to start a company, while Denmark's legislature took the view companies should only be started up if they had 200,000 Danish krone (around \u20ac27,000) to protect creditors if the company failed and went insolvent. The Court of Justice held that Denmark's minimum capital law infringed Centros Ltd's freedom of establishment and could not be justified, because a company in the UK could admittedly provide services in Denmark without being established there, and there were less restrictive means of achieving the aim of creditor protection. This approach was criticised as potentially opening the EU to unjustified regulatory competition, and a race to the bottom in standards, like in the US where the state Delaware attracts most companies and is often argued to have the worst standards of accountability of boards, and low corporate taxes as a result. Similarly in \u00dcberseering BV v Nordic Construction GmbH the Court of Justice held that a German court could not deny a Dutch building company the right to enforce a contract in Germany on the basis that it was not validly incorporated in Germany. Although restrictions on freedom of establishment could be justified by creditor protection, labour rights to participate in work, or the public interest in collecting taxes, denial of capacity went too far: it was an \"outright negation\" of the right of establishment. However, in Cartesio Oktat\u00f3 \u00e9s Szolg\u00e1ltat\u00f3 bt the Court of Justice affirmed again that because corporations are created by law, they are in principle subject to any rules for formation that a state of incorporation wishes to impose. This meant that the Hungarian authorities could prevent a company from shifting its central administration to Italy while it still operated and was incorporated in Hungary. Thus, the court draws a distinction between the right of establishment for foreign companies (where restrictions must be justified), and the right of the state to determine conditions for companies incorporated in its territory, although it is not entirely clear why.", "qas": [{"question": "Which newspaper's parent company could not evade tax by shifting its residence to the Netherlands?", "id": "5726c5a9f1498d1400e8eac4", "answers": [{"text": "the Daily Mail", "answer_start": 224}, {"text": "the Daily Mail", "answer_start": 224}, {"text": "Daily Mail", "answer_start": 56}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Amazon_rainforest", "paragraphs": [{"context": "There is evidence that there have been significant changes in Amazon rainforest vegetation over the last 21,000 years through the Last Glacial Maximum (LGM) and subsequent deglaciation. Analyses of sediment deposits from Amazon basin paleolakes and from the Amazon Fan indicate that rainfall in the basin during the LGM was lower than for the present, and this was almost certainly associated with reduced moist tropical vegetation cover in the basin. There is debate, however, over how extensive this reduction was. Some scientists argue that the rainforest was reduced to small, isolated refugia separated by open forest and grassland; other scientists argue that the rainforest remained largely intact but extended less far to the north, south, and east than is seen today. This debate has proved difficult to resolve because the practical limitations of working in the rainforest mean that data sampling is biased away from the center of the Amazon basin, and both explanations are reasonably well supported by the available data.", "qas": [{"question": "There have been major changes in Amazon rainforest vegetation over the last how many years?", "id": "572841772ca10214002da1a6", "answers": [{"text": "21,000", "answer_start": 105}, {"text": "21,000", "answer_start": 105}, {"text": "21,000", "answer_start": 105}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "Many changes in the vegetation of the amazon rainforest took place since the  Last Glacial Maximum, which was how many years ago?", "id": "572a0bfaaf94a219006aa779", "answers": [{"text": "21,000", "answer_start": 105}, {"text": "21,000", "answer_start": 105}, {"text": "21,000", "answer_start": 105}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "Scientists disagree with how the Amazon rainforest changed over time with some arguing that it was reduced to isolated refugia seperated by what?", "id": "572a0bfaaf94a219006aa77c", "answers": [{"text": "open forest and grassland", "answer_start": 611}, {"text": "open forest and grassland", "answer_start": 611}, {"text": "open forest and grassland", "answer_start": 611}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "For a long time, it was thought that the Amazon rainforest was only ever sparsely populated, as it was impossible to sustain a large population through agriculture given the poor soil. Archeologist Betty Meggers was a prominent proponent of this idea, as described in her book Amazonia: Man and Culture in a Counterfeit Paradise. She claimed that a population density of 0.2 inhabitants per square kilometre (0.52/sq mi) is the maximum that can be sustained in the rainforest through hunting, with agriculture needed to host a larger population. However, recent anthropological findings have suggested that the region was actually densely populated. Some 5 million people may have lived in the Amazon region in AD 1500, divided between dense coastal settlements, such as that at Maraj\u00f3, and inland dwellers. By 1900 the population had fallen to 1 million and by the early 1980s it was less than 200,000.", "qas": [{"question": "How many people may have lived in the Amazon region during AD 1500?", "id": "5725c95f38643c19005accf7", "answers": [{"text": "5 million", "answer_start": 655}, {"text": "5 million", "answer_start": 655}, {"text": "5 million", "answer_start": 655}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "In 1500 AD how many people were believed to have lived in the Amazon region?", "id": "5729eb34af94a219006aa6cc", "answers": [{"text": "5 million people", "answer_start": 655}, {"text": "5 million", "answer_start": 655}, {"text": "Some 5 million", "answer_start": 650}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The biodiversity of plant species is the highest on Earth with one 2001 study finding a quarter square kilometer (62 acres) of Ecuadorian rainforest supports more than 1,100 tree species. A study in 1999 found one square kilometer (247 acres) of Amazon rainforest can contain about 90,790 tonnes of living plants. The average plant biomass is estimated at 356 \u00b1 47 tonnes per hectare. To date, an estimated 438,000 species of plants of economic and social interest have been registered in the region with many more remaining to be discovered or catalogued. The total number of tree species in the region is estimated at 16,000.", "qas": [{"question": "How many tree species were found in one square kilometer of Ecuadorian rainforest in 2001?", "id": "5729f2646aef051400155131", "answers": [{"text": "1,100", "answer_start": 168}, {"text": "more than 1,100", "answer_start": 158}, {"text": "more than 1,100", "answer_start": 158}, {"text": "1,100", "answer_start": 168}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "How many tons of live plants were found to live in one square kilometer of the Amazon rainforest in 1999?", "id": "5729f2646aef051400155132", "answers": [{"text": "90,790 tonnes", "answer_start": 282}, {"text": "about 90,790", "answer_start": 276}, {"text": "about 90,790", "answer_start": 276}, {"text": "90,790 tonnes", "answer_start": 282}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Environmentalists are concerned about loss of biodiversity that will result from destruction of the forest, and also about the release of the carbon contained within the vegetation, which could accelerate global warming. Amazonian evergreen forests account for about 10% of the world's terrestrial primary productivity and 10% of the carbon stores in ecosystems\u2014of the order of 1.1 \u00d7 1011 metric tonnes of carbon. Amazonian forests are estimated to have accumulated 0.62 \u00b1 0.37 tons of carbon per hectare per year between 1975 and 1996.", "qas": [{"question": "How many metric tons of carbon are believed to be stored in the Amazon forest?", "id": "572a020f6aef05140015519c", "answers": [{"text": "1.1 \u00d7 1011 metric tonnes", "answer_start": 378}, {"text": "1.1 \u00d7 1011", "answer_start": 378}, {"text": "1.1 \u00d7 1011", "answer_start": 378}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Ctenophora", "paragraphs": [{"context": "Most species are hermaphrodites\u2014a single animal can produce both eggs and sperm, meaning it can fertilize its own egg, not needing a mate. Some are simultaneous hermaphrodites, which can produce both eggs and sperm at the same time. Others are sequential hermaphrodites, in which the eggs and sperm mature at different times. Fertilization is generally external, although platyctenids' eggs are fertilized inside their parents' bodies and kept there until they hatch. The young are generally planktonic and in most species look like miniature cydippids, gradually changing into their adult shapes as they grow. The exceptions are the beroids, whose young are miniature beroids with large mouths and no tentacles, and the platyctenids, whose young live as cydippid-like plankton until they reach near-adult size, but then sink to the bottom and rapidly metamorphose into the adult form. In at least some species, juveniles are capable of reproduction before reaching the adult size and shape. The combination of hermaphroditism and early reproduction enables small populations to grow at an explosive rate.", "qas": [{"question": "Which species eggs are fertilized and kept inside the parents body until hatched?", "id": "5725c57a89a1e219009abe61", "answers": [{"text": "platyctenids", "answer_start": 372}, {"text": "platyctenids", "answer_start": 372}, {"text": "platyctenids", "answer_start": 372}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "Which group keep the eggs are fertilized and kept inside the parent's body until they hatch?", "id": "5726415bec44d21400f3dcd4", "answers": [{"text": "platyctenids", "answer_start": 372}, {"text": "platyctenids", "answer_start": 372}, {"text": "platyctenids", "answer_start": 372}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "When some species, including Bathyctena chuni, Euplokamis stationis and Eurhamphaea vexilligera, are disturbed, they produce secretions (ink) that luminesce at much the same wavelengths as their bodies. Juveniles will luminesce more brightly in relation to their body size than adults, whose luminescence is diffused over their bodies. Detailed statistical investigation has not suggested the function of ctenophores' bioluminescence nor produced any correlation between its exact color and any aspect of the animals' environments, such as depth or whether they live in coastal or mid-ocean waters.", "qas": [{"question": "When do bathyctena chuni, euplokamis stationis and eurhamphaea vexilligera  excrete secretions?", "id": "572686fc708984140094c8e6", "answers": [{"text": "are disturbed,", "answer_start": 97}, {"text": "disturbed", "answer_start": 101}, {"text": "are disturbed", "answer_start": 97}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Fresno,_California", "paragraphs": [{"context": "This vibrant and culturally diverse area of retail businesses and residences experienced a renewal after a significant decline in the late 1960s and 1970s.[citation needed] After decades of neglect and suburban flight, the neighborhood revival followed the re-opening of the Tower Theatre in the late 1970s, which at that time showed second and third run movies, along with classic films. Roger Rocka's Dinner Theater & Good Company Players also opened nearby in 1978,[citation needed] at Olive and Wishon Avenues. Fresno native Audra McDonald performed in the leading roles of Evita and The Wiz at the theater while she was a high school student. McDonald subsequently became a leading performer on Broadway in New York City and a Tony award winning actress. Also in the Tower District is Good Company Players' 2nd Space Theatre.", "qas": [{"question": "In what year did Roger Rocka's Dinner Theater & Good Company Players open?", "id": "5725e1c4271a42140099d2d9", "answers": [{"text": "1978", "answer_start": 463}, {"text": "1978", "answer_start": 463}, {"text": "1978", "answer_start": 463}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "Which two leading roles did Audra McDonald perform when she was in high school?", "id": "5725e1c4271a42140099d2db", "answers": [{"text": "Evita and The Wiz", "answer_start": 578}, {"text": "Evita and The Wiz", "answer_start": 578}, {"text": "Evita and The Wiz", "answer_start": 578}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "In the north eastern part of Fresno, Woodward Park was founded by the late Ralph Woodward, a long-time Fresno resident. He bequeathed a major portion of his estate in 1968 to provide a regional park and bird sanctuary in Northeast Fresno. The park lies on the South bank of the San Joaquin River between Highway 41 and Friant Road. The initial 235 acres (0.95 km2), combined with additional acres acquired later by the City, brings the park to a sizable 300 acres (1.2 km2). Now packed with amenities, Woodward Park is the only Regional Park of its size in the Central Valley. The Southeast corner of the park harbors numerous bird species offering bird enthusiasts an excellent opportunity for viewing. The park has a multi-use amphitheatre that seats up to 2,500 people, authentic Japanese Garden, fenced dog park, two-mile (3 km) equestrian trail, exercise par course, three children's playgrounds, a lake, 3 small ponds, 7 picnic areas and five miles (8 km) of multipurpose trails that are part of the San Joaquin River Parkway's Lewis S. Eaton Trail. When complete, the Lewis S. Eaton trail system will cover 22 miles (35 km) between Highway 99 and Friant Dam. The park's numerous picnic tables make for a great picnic destination and a convenient escape from city life. The park's amphetheatre was renovated in 2010, and has hosted performances by acts such as Deftones, Tech N9ne, and Sevendust as well as numerous others. The park is open April through October, 6am to 10pm and November through March, 6am to 7pm. Woodward Park is home to the annual CIF(California Interscholastic Federation) State Championship cross country meet, which takes place in late November. It is also the home of the Woodward Shakespeare Festival which began performances in the park in 2005.", "qas": [{"question": "How many miles, once completed, will the the Lewis S. Eaton trail cover?", "id": "5725f2c838643c19005acef0", "answers": [{"text": "22 miles", "answer_start": 1114}, {"text": "22", "answer_start": 1114}, {"text": "22", "answer_start": 1114}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Formed in 1946, Sierra Sky Park Airport is a residential airport community born of a unique agreement in transportation law to allow personal aircraft and automobiles to share certain roads. Sierra Sky Park was the first aviation community to be built[citation needed] and there are now numerous such communities across the United States and around the world. Developer William Smilie created the nation's first planned aviation community. Still in operation today, the public use airport provides a unique neighborhood that spawned interest and similar communities nationwide.", "qas": [{"question": "Are there any other aviation communities such as Sierra Sky Park in the United States?", "id": "5725f46289a1e219009ac0fe", "answers": [{"text": "there are now numerous such communities across the United States", "answer_start": 273}, {"text": "numerous", "answer_start": 287}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Geology", "paragraphs": [{"context": "Seismologists can use the arrival times of seismic waves in reverse to image the interior of the Earth. Early advances in this field showed the existence of a liquid outer core (where shear waves were not able to propagate) and a dense solid inner core. These advances led to the development of a layered model of the Earth, with a crust and lithosphere on top, the mantle below (separated within itself by seismic discontinuities at 410 and 660 kilometers), and the outer core and inner core below that. More recently, seismologists have been able to create detailed images of wave speeds inside the earth in the same way a doctor images a body in a CT scan. These images have led to a much more detailed view of the interior of the Earth, and have replaced the simplified layered model with a much more dynamic model.", "qas": [{"question": "Recently a more detailed model of the Earth was developed. Seismologists were able to create this using images of what from the interior of the Earth? ", "id": "57266193dd62a815002e832e", "answers": [{"text": "wave speeds", "answer_start": 578}, {"text": "wave speeds", "answer_start": 578}, {"text": "wave speeds", "answer_start": 578}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "At the beginning of the 20th century, important advancement in geological science was facilitated by the ability to obtain accurate absolute dates to geologic events using radioactive isotopes and other methods. This changed the understanding of geologic time. Previously, geologists could only use fossils and stratigraphic correlation to date sections of rock relative to one another. With isotopic dates it became possible to assign absolute ages to rock units, and these absolute dates could be applied to fossil sequences in which there was datable material, converting the old relative ages into new absolute ages.", "qas": [{"question": "Previous to isotopic dating sections of rocks had to be dated using fossils and stratigraphic correlation relative to what? ", "id": "57266c015951b619008f723a", "answers": [{"text": "to one another", "answer_start": 371}, {"text": "one another", "answer_start": 374}, {"text": "one another", "answer_start": 374}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "When rock units are placed under horizontal compression, they shorten and become thicker. Because rock units, other than muds, do not significantly change in volume, this is accomplished in two primary ways: through faulting and folding. In the shallow crust, where brittle deformation can occur, thrust faults form, which cause deeper rock to move on top of shallower rock. Because deeper rock is often older, as noted by the principle of superposition, this can result in older rocks moving on top of younger ones. Movement along faults can result in folding, either because the faults are not planar or because rock layers are dragged along, forming drag folds as slip occurs along the fault. Deeper in the Earth, rocks behave plastically, and fold instead of faulting. These folds can either be those where the material in the center of the fold buckles upwards, creating \"antiforms\", or where it buckles downwards, creating \"synforms\". If the tops of the rock units within the folds remain pointing upwards, they are called anticlines and synclines, respectively. If some of the units in the fold are facing downward, the structure is called an overturned anticline or syncline, and if all of the rock units are overturned or the correct up-direction is unknown, they are simply called by the most general terms, antiforms and synforms.", "qas": [{"question": "If the tops of the rock units within the folds remain pointing upwards, they are called what? ", "id": "5726701add62a815002e84cc", "answers": [{"text": "anticlines and synclines", "answer_start": 1029}, {"text": "overturned anticline", "answer_start": 1150}, {"text": "anticlines and synclines", "answer_start": 1029}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Extension causes the rock units as a whole to become longer and thinner. This is primarily accomplished through normal faulting and through the ductile stretching and thinning. Normal faults drop rock units that are higher below those that are lower. This typically results in younger units being placed below older units. Stretching of units can result in their thinning; in fact, there is a location within the Maria Fold and Thrust Belt in which the entire sedimentary sequence of the Grand Canyon can be seen over a length of less than a meter. Rocks at the depth to be ductilely stretched are often also metamorphosed. These stretched rocks can also pinch into lenses, known as boudins, after the French word for \"sausage\", because of their visual similarity.", "qas": [{"question": "Rocks that are a depth where they are ductilely stretched are also often what?", "id": "572671a5f1498d1400e8dfe7", "answers": [{"text": "metamorphosed", "answer_start": 609}, {"text": "metamorphosed", "answer_start": 609}, {"text": "metamorphosed", "answer_start": 609}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Among the most well-known experiments in structural geology are those involving orogenic wedges, which are zones in which mountains are built along convergent tectonic plate boundaries. In the analog versions of these experiments, horizontal layers of sand are pulled along a lower surface into a back stop, which results in realistic-looking patterns of faulting and the growth of a critically tapered (all angles remain the same) orogenic wedge. Numerical models work in the same way as these analog models, though they are often more sophisticated and can include patterns of erosion and uplift in the mountain belt. This helps to show the relationship between erosion and the shape of the mountain range. These studies can also give useful information about pathways for metamorphism through pressure, temperature, space, and time.", "qas": [{"question": "Horizontal layers of what are pulled along a surface into a back stop in analog versions of orogenic wedge experiments?", "id": "57267ebfdd62a815002e872e", "answers": [{"text": "sand", "answer_start": 252}, {"text": "sand", "answer_start": 252}, {"text": "sand", "answer_start": 252}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "In the laboratory, stratigraphers analyze samples of stratigraphic sections that can be returned from the field, such as those from drill cores. Stratigraphers also analyze data from geophysical surveys that show the locations of stratigraphic units in the subsurface. Geophysical data and well logs can be combined to produce a better view of the subsurface, and stratigraphers often use computer programs to do this in three dimensions. Stratigraphers can then use these data to reconstruct ancient processes occurring on the surface of the Earth, interpret past environments, and locate areas for water, coal, and hydrocarbon extraction.", "qas": [{"question": "What can be combined with geophysical data to produce a better view of the subsurface?", "id": "57268066708984140094c823", "answers": [{"text": "well logs", "answer_start": 290}, {"text": "well logs", "answer_start": 290}, {"text": "well logs", "answer_start": 290}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Pharmacy", "paragraphs": [{"context": "In the U.S. federal health care system (including the VA, the Indian Health Service, and NIH) ambulatory care pharmacists are given full independent prescribing authority. In some states such North Carolina and New Mexico these pharmacist clinicians are given collaborative prescriptive and diagnostic authority. In 2011 the board of Pharmaceutical Specialties approved ambulatory care pharmacy practice as a separate board certification. The official designation for pharmacists who pass the ambulatory care pharmacy specialty certification exam will be Board Certified Ambulatory Care Pharmacist and these pharmacists will carry the initials BCACP.", "qas": [{"question": "What type of authority are ambulatory care pharmacists given in the U.S. federal health care system?", "id": "5726e985dd62a815002e94da", "answers": [{"text": "full independent prescribing authority", "answer_start": 132}, {"text": "full independent prescribing authority", "answer_start": 132}, {"text": "full independent prescribing authority", "answer_start": 132}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "In what states are pharmacist clinicians given prescriptive and diagnostic authority?", "id": "5726e985dd62a815002e94db", "answers": [{"text": "North Carolina and New Mexico", "answer_start": 192}, {"text": "North Carolina and New Mexico", "answer_start": 192}, {"text": "North Carolina and New Mexico", "answer_start": 192}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "In some rural areas in the United Kingdom, there are dispensing physicians who are allowed to both prescribe and dispense prescription-only medicines to their patients from within their practices. The law requires that the GP practice be located in a designated rural area and that there is also a specified, minimum distance (currently 1.6 kilometres) between a patient's home and the nearest retail pharmacy. This law also exists in Austria for general physicians if the nearest pharmacy is more than 4 kilometers away, or where none is registered in the city.", "qas": [{"question": "What is the minimum distance between a patient's home and the nearest pharmacy that allows a physician to give out medication?", "id": "5726f635dd62a815002e9658", "answers": [{"text": "1.6 kilometres", "answer_start": 337}, {"text": "1.6 kilometres", "answer_start": 337}, {"text": "1.6 kilometres", "answer_start": 337}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Civil_disobedience", "paragraphs": [{"context": "Civil disobedients have chosen a variety of different illegal acts. Bedau writes, \"There is a whole class of acts, undertaken in the name of civil disobedience, which, even if they were widely practiced, would in themselves constitute hardly more than a nuisance (e.g. trespassing at a nuclear-missile installation)...Such acts are often just a harassment and, at least to the bystander, somewhat inane...The remoteness of the connection between the disobedient act and the objectionable law lays such acts open to the charge of ineffectiveness and absurdity.\" Bedau also notes, though, that the very harmlessness of such entirely symbolic illegal protests toward public policy goals may serve a propaganda purpose. Some civil disobedients, such as the proprietors of illegal medical cannabis dispensaries and Voice in the Wilderness, which brought medicine to Iraq without the permission of the U.S. Government, directly achieve a desired social goal (such as the provision of medication to the sick) while openly breaking the law. Julia Butterfly Hill lived in Luna, a 180-foot (55 m)-tall, 600-year-old California Redwood tree for 738 days, successfully preventing it from being cut down.", "qas": [{"question": "Bedau notes that illegal protests towards public policy may serve as what purpose?", "id": "572825a92ca10214002d9eff", "answers": [{"text": "propaganda", "answer_start": 696}, {"text": "propaganda", "answer_start": 696}, {"text": "propaganda", "answer_start": 696}, {"text": "propaganda", "answer_start": 696}, {"text": "just a harassment", "answer_start": 338}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Construction", "paragraphs": [{"context": "Construction is the process of constructing a building or infrastructure. Construction differs from manufacturing in that manufacturing typically involves mass production of similar items without a designated purchaser, while construction typically takes place on location for a known client. Construction as an industry comprises six to nine percent of the gross domestic product of developed countries. Construction starts with planning,[citation needed] design, and financing and continues until the project is built and ready for use.", "qas": [{"question": "What typically involves mass production of similar items without a designated purchaser?", "id": "57273a465951b619008f8700", "answers": [{"text": "manufacturing", "answer_start": 122}, {"text": "manufacturing", "answer_start": 100}, {"text": "manufacturing", "answer_start": 122}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Engineering News-Record (ENR) is a trade magazine for the construction industry. Each year, ENR compiles and reports on data about the size of design and construction companies. They publish a list of the largest companies in the United States (Top-40) and also a list the largest global firms (Top-250, by amount of work they are doing outside their home country). In 2014, ENR compiled the data in nine market segments. It was divided as transportation, petroleum, buildings, power, industrial, water, manufacturing, sewer/waste, telecom, hazardous waste plus a tenth category for other projects. In their reporting on the Top 400, they used data on transportation, sewer, hazardous waste and water to rank firms as heavy contractors.", "qas": [{"question": "ENR used data on what to rank Top 400 firms as heavy contractors?", "id": "57273e50dd62a815002e9a05", "answers": [{"text": "transportation, sewer, hazardous waste and water", "answer_start": 652}, {"text": "data on transportation, sewer, hazardous waste and water", "answer_start": 644}, {"text": "transportation, sewer, hazardous waste and water", "answer_start": 652}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "New techniques of building construction are being researched, made possible by advances in 3D printing technology. In a form of additive building construction, similar to the additive manufacturing techniques for manufactured parts, building printing is making it possible to flexibly construct small commercial buildings and private habitations in around 20 hours, with built-in plumbing and electrical facilities, in one continuous build, using large 3D printers. Working versions of 3D-printing building technology are already printing 2 metres (6 ft 7 in) of building material per hour as of January 2013[update], with the next-generation printers capable of 3.5 metres (11 ft) per hour, sufficient to complete a building in a week. Dutch architect Janjaap Ruijssenaars's performative architecture 3D-printed building is scheduled to be built in 2014.", "qas": [{"question": "New techniques of building construction are being researched, made possible by advances in what?", "id": "572744aff1498d1400e8f588", "answers": [{"text": "3D printing technology", "answer_start": 91}, {"text": "3D printing technology", "answer_start": 91}, {"text": "advances in 3D printing technology", "answer_start": 79}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "Building printing is making it possible to flexibly construct small commercial buildings and private habitations in what amount of time?", "id": "572744aff1498d1400e8f589", "answers": [{"text": "around 20 hours", "answer_start": 349}, {"text": "around 20 hours", "answer_start": 349}, {"text": "20 hours", "answer_start": 356}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "Working versions of 3D-printing building technology are already printing how much building material per hour?", "id": "572744aff1498d1400e8f58b", "answers": [{"text": "2 metres (6 ft 7 in)", "answer_start": 539}, {"text": "2 metres (6 ft 7 in)", "answer_start": 539}, {"text": "2 metres (6 ft 7 in)", "answer_start": 539}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The modern trend in design is toward integration of previously separated specialties, especially among large firms. In the past, architects, interior designers, engineers, developers, construction managers, and general contractors were more likely to be entirely separate companies, even in the larger firms. Presently, a firm that is nominally an \"architecture\" or \"construction management\" firm may have experts from all related fields as employees, or to have an associated company that provides each necessary skill. Thus, each such firm may offer itself as \"one-stop shopping\" for a construction project, from beginning to end. This is designated as a \"design build\" contract where the contractor is given a performance specification and must undertake the project from design to construction, while adhering to the performance specifications.", "qas": [{"question": "Even in large firms, architects, interior designers, engineers, developers, construction managers, and general contractors were more likely to be what?", "id": "57274e0d708984140094dbe6", "answers": [{"text": "entirely separate companies", "answer_start": 254}, {"text": "entirely separate companies", "answer_start": 254}, {"text": "entirely separate companies", "answer_start": 254}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Several project structures can assist the owner in this integration, including design-build, partnering and construction management. In general, each of these project structures allows the owner to integrate the services of architects, interior designers, engineers and constructors throughout design and construction. In response, many companies are growing beyond traditional offerings of design or construction services alone and are placing more emphasis on establishing relationships with other necessary participants through the design-build process.", "qas": [{"question": "These project structures allow the owner to integrate the services of who throughout the design and construction?", "id": "57274e975951b619008f87fa", "answers": [{"text": "architects, interior designers, engineers and constructors", "answer_start": 224}, {"text": "architects, interior designers, engineers and constructors", "answer_start": 224}, {"text": "architects, interior designers, engineers and constructors", "answer_start": 224}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Mortgage bankers, accountants, and cost engineers are likely participants in creating an overall plan for the financial management of the building construction project. The presence of the mortgage banker is highly likely, even in relatively small projects since the owner's equity in the property is the most obvious source of funding for a building project. Accountants act to study the expected monetary flow over the life of the project and to monitor the payouts throughout the process. Cost engineers and estimators apply expertise to relate the work and materials involved to a proper valuation. Cost overruns with government projects have occurred when the contractor identified change orders or project changes that increased costs, which are not subject to competition from other firms as they have already been eliminated from consideration after the initial bid.", "qas": [{"question": "Who studies the expected monetary flow over the life of the project and to monitor the payouts throughout the process?", "id": "5727502f708984140094dc09", "answers": [{"text": "Accountants", "answer_start": 360}, {"text": "Accountants", "answer_start": 360}, {"text": "Accountants", "answer_start": 360}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "Cost overruns with government projects have occurred when the contractor did what?", "id": "5727502f708984140094dc0b", "answers": [{"text": "identified change orders or project changes that increased costs", "answer_start": 676}, {"text": "identified change orders or project changes that increased costs", "answer_start": 676}, {"text": "contractor identified change orders or project changes that increased costs", "answer_start": 665}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The project must adhere to zoning and building code requirements. Constructing a project that fails to adhere to codes does not benefit the owner. Some legal requirements come from malum in se considerations, or the desire to prevent things that are indisputably bad \u2013 bridge collapses or explosions. Other legal requirements come from malum prohibitum considerations, or things that are a matter of custom or expectation, such as isolating businesses to a business district and residences to a residential district. An attorney may seek changes or exemptions in the law that governs the land where the building will be built, either by arguing that a rule is inapplicable (the bridge design will not cause a collapse), or that the custom is no longer needed (acceptance of live-work spaces has grown in the community).", "qas": [{"question": "Constructing a project that fails to adhere to codes does not benefit whom?", "id": "572750e8dd62a815002e9af1", "answers": [{"text": "the owner", "answer_start": 136}, {"text": "owner", "answer_start": 140}, {"text": "the owner", "answer_start": 136}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "Who may seek changes or exemptions in the law that governs the land where the building will be built?", "id": "572750e8dd62a815002e9af4", "answers": [{"text": "An attorney", "answer_start": 517}, {"text": "attorney", "answer_start": 520}, {"text": "An attorney", "answer_start": 517}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Private_school", "paragraphs": [{"context": "The secondary level includes schools offering years 7 through 12 (year twelve is known as lower sixth) and year 13 (upper sixth). This category includes university-preparatory schools or \"prep schools\", boarding schools and day schools. Tuition at private secondary schools varies from school to school and depends on many factors, including the location of the school, the willingness of parents to pay, peer tuitions and the school's financial endowment. High tuition, schools claim, is used to pay higher salaries for the best teachers and also used to provide enriched learning environments, including a low student to teacher ratio, small class sizes and services, such as libraries, science laboratories and computers. Some private schools are boarding schools and many military academies are privately owned or operated as well.", "qas": [{"question": "Along with location, endowment and the willingness of parents to pay, what factor influences private school tuition?", "id": "5727478cf1498d1400e8f59d", "answers": [{"text": "peer tuitions", "answer_start": 405}, {"text": "peer tuitions", "answer_start": 405}, {"text": "peer tuitions and the school's financial endowment", "answer_start": 405}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "In Ireland, private schools (Irish: scoil phr\u00edobh\u00e1ideach) are unusual because a certain number of teacher's salaries are paid by the State. If the school wishes to employ extra teachers they are paid for with school fees, which tend to be relatively low in Ireland compared to the rest of the world. There is, however, a limited element of state assessment of private schools, because of the requirement that the state ensure that children receive a certain minimum education; Irish private schools must still work towards the Junior Certificate and the Leaving Certificate, for example. Many private schools in Ireland also double as boarding schools. The average fee is around \u20ac5,000 annually for most schools, but some of these schools also provide boarding and the fees may then rise up to \u20ac25,000 per year. The fee-paying schools are usually run by a religious order, i.e., the Society of Jesus or Congregation of Christian Brothers, etc.", "qas": [{"question": "Along with the Congregation of Christian Brothers, what is a notable religious group that runs fee-paying schools in Ireland?", "id": "57274d1cdd62a815002e9ab1", "answers": [{"text": "Society of Jesus", "answer_start": 883}, {"text": "the Society of Jesus", "answer_start": 879}, {"text": "Society of Jesus", "answer_start": 883}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "As of April 2014, there are 88 private schools in New Zealand, catering for around 28,000 students or 3.7% of the entire student population. Private school numbers have been in decline since the mid-1970s as a result of many private schools opting to become state-integrated schools, mostly due of financial difficulties stemming from changes in student numbers and/or the economy. State-integrated schools keep their private school special character and receives state funds in return for having to operate like a state school, e.g. they must teach the state curriculum, they must employ registered teachers, and they can't charge tuition fees (they can charge \"attendance dues\" for the upkeep on the still-private school land and buildings). The largest decline in private school numbers occurred between 1979 and 1984, when the nation's then-private Catholic school system integrated. As a result, private schools in New Zealand are now largely restricted to the largest cities (Auckland, Hamilton, Wellington and Christchurch) and niche markets.", "qas": [{"question": "In April 2014, how many New Zealand students attended private schools?", "id": "57274eca5951b619008f8800", "answers": [{"text": "28,000", "answer_start": 83}, {"text": "28,000", "answer_start": 83}, {"text": "28,000", "answer_start": 83}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "What religion's schools were integrated into New Zealand public schools between 1979 and 1984?", "id": "57274eca5951b619008f8802", "answers": [{"text": "Catholic", "answer_start": 853}, {"text": "Catholic", "answer_start": 853}, {"text": "Catholic", "answer_start": 853}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "What city, along with Hamilton, Wellington and Christchurch, is one of the largest in New Zealand?", "id": "57274eca5951b619008f8803", "answers": [{"text": "Auckland", "answer_start": 982}, {"text": "Auckland", "answer_start": 982}, {"text": "Auckland", "answer_start": 982}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Harvard_University", "paragraphs": [{"context": "During the divestment from South Africa movement in the late 1980s, student activists erected a symbolic \"shantytown\" on Harvard Yard and blockaded a speech given by South African Vice Consul Duke Kent-Brown. The Harvard Management Company repeatedly refused to divest, stating that \"operating expenses must not be subject to financially unrealistic strictures or carping by the unsophisticated or by special interest groups.\" However, the university did eventually reduce its South African holdings by $230 million (out of $400 million) in response to the pressure.", "qas": [{"question": "What South African Vice Consul did Harvard students blockade the speech of? ", "id": "5727d0f73acd2414000ded14", "answers": [{"text": "South African Vice Consul Duke Kent-Brown.", "answer_start": 166}, {"text": "Duke Kent-Brown", "answer_start": 192}, {"text": "Duke Kent-Brown", "answer_start": 192}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The four-year, full-time undergraduate program comprises a minority of enrollments at the university and emphasizes instruction with an \"arts and sciences focus\". Between 1978 and 2008, entering students were required to complete a core curriculum of seven classes outside of their concentration. Since 2008, undergraduate students have been required to complete courses in eight General Education categories: Aesthetic and Interpretive Understanding, Culture and Belief, Empirical and Mathematical Reasoning, Ethical Reasoning, Science of Living Systems, Science of the Physical Universe, Societies of the World, and United States in the World. Harvard offers a comprehensive doctoral graduate program and there is a high level of coexistence between graduate and undergraduate degrees. The Carnegie Foundation for the Advancement of Teaching, The New York Times, and some students have criticized Harvard for its reliance on teaching fellows for some aspects of undergraduate education; they consider this to adversely affect the quality of education.", "qas": [{"question": "Between 1978 an d2008 four year full time undergraduate students were required to complete how many classes outside of their concentration?", "id": "5727d3843acd2414000ded69", "answers": [{"text": "core curriculum of seven classes", "answer_start": 232}, {"text": "seven", "answer_start": 251}, {"text": "seven", "answer_start": 251}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "Post 2008 undergraduate students are required to complete how many general education classes towards degree?", "id": "5727d3843acd2414000ded6a", "answers": [{"text": "eight General Education categories", "answer_start": 374}, {"text": "eight", "answer_start": 374}, {"text": "eight", "answer_start": 374}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Harvard's academic programs operate on a semester calendar beginning in early September and ending in mid-May. Undergraduates typically take four half-courses per term and must maintain a four-course rate average to be considered full-time. In many concentrations, students can elect to pursue a basic program or an honors-eligible program requiring a senior thesis and/or advanced course work. Students graduating in the top 4\u20135% of the class are awarded degrees summa cum laude, students in the next 15% of the class are awarded magna cum laude, and the next 30% of the class are awarded cum laude. Harvard has chapters of academic honor societies such as Phi Beta Kappa and various committees and departments also award several hundred named prizes annually. Harvard, along with other universities, has been accused of grade inflation, although there is evidence that the quality of the student body and its motivation have also increased. Harvard College reduced the number of students who receive Latin honors from 90% in 2004 to 60% in 2005. Moreover, the honors of \"John Harvard Scholar\" and \"Harvard College Scholar\" will now be given only to the top 5 percent and the next 5 percent of each class.", "qas": [{"question": "From 2004 to 2005 Harvard reduced the number of students earning Latin honors from 90% to what?", "id": "5727d4922ca10214002d977f", "answers": [{"text": "60%", "answer_start": 1035}, {"text": "60%", "answer_start": 1035}, {"text": "60%", "answer_start": 1035}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Harvard has been highly ranked by many university rankings. In particular, it has consistently topped the Academic Ranking of World Universities (ARWU) since 2003, and the THE World Reputation Rankings since 2011, when the first time such league tables were published. When the QS and Times were published in partnership as the THE-QS World University Rankings during 2004-2009, Harvard had also been regarded the first in every year. The University's undergraduate program has been continuously among the top two in the U.S. News & World Report. In 2014, Harvard topped the University Ranking by Academic Performance (URAP). It was ranked 8th on the 2013-2014 PayScale College Salary Report and 14th on the 2013 PayScale College Education Value Rankings. From a poll done by The Princeton Review, Harvard is the second most commonly named \"dream college\", both for students and parents in 2013, and was the first nominated by parents in 2009. In 2011, the Mines ParisTech : Professional Ranking World Universities ranked Harvard 1st university in the world in terms of number of alumni holding CEO position in Fortune Global 500 companies.", "qas": [{"question": "According to the Princeton Review where has Harvard ranked as a \"Dream College\" in 2013", "id": "5727d9c43acd2414000dee19", "answers": [{"text": "second most commonly", "answer_start": 813}, {"text": "second", "answer_start": 813}, {"text": "second", "answer_start": 813}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Economic_inequality", "paragraphs": [{"context": "A study by the World Institute for Development Economics Research at United Nations University reports that the richest 1% of adults alone owned 40% of global assets in the year 2000. The three richest people in the world possess more financial assets than the lowest 48 nations combined. The combined wealth of the \"10 million dollar millionaires\" grew to nearly $41 trillion in 2008. A January 2014 report by Oxfam claims that the 85 wealthiest individuals in the world have a combined wealth equal to that of the bottom 50% of the world's population, or about 3.5 billion people. According to a Los Angeles Times analysis of the report, the wealthiest 1% owns 46% of the world's wealth; the 85 richest people, a small part of the wealthiest 1%, own about 0.7% of the human population's wealth, which is the same as the bottom half of the population. More recently, in January 2015, Oxfam reported that the wealthiest 1 percent will own more than half of the global wealth by 2016. An October 2014 study by Credit Suisse also claims that the top 1% now own nearly half of the world's wealth and that the accelerating disparity could trigger a recession. In October 2015, Credit Suisse published a study which shows global inequality continues to increase, and that half of the world's wealth is now in the hands of those in the top percentile, whose assets each exceed $759,900. A 2016 report by Oxfam claims that the 62 wealthiest individuals own as much wealth as the poorer half of the global population combined. Oxfam's claims have however been questioned on the basis of the methodology used: by using net wealth (adding up assets and subtracting debts), the Oxfam report, for instance, finds that there are more poor people in the United States and Western Europe than in China (due to a greater tendency to take on debts).[unreliable source?][unreliable source?] Anthony Shorrocks, the lead author of the Credit Suisse report which is one of the sources of Oxfam's data, considers the criticism about debt to be a \"silly argument\" and \"a non-issue . . . a diversion.\"", "qas": [{"question": "What do the three richest people in the world posses more of than the lowest 48 nations together?", "id": "5729d36b1d04691400779608", "answers": [{"text": "financial assets", "answer_start": 235}, {"text": "financial assets", "answer_start": 235}, {"text": "possess more financial assets than the lowest 48 nations combined.", "answer_start": 222}, {"text": "financial assets", "answer_start": 235}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "How much was the combined wealth of the \"10 Million dollar millionaires\" in 2008?", "id": "5729d36b1d04691400779609", "answers": [{"text": "nearly $41 trillion", "answer_start": 357}, {"text": "$41 trillion", "answer_start": 364}, {"text": "the \"10 million dollar millionaires\" grew to nearly $41 trillion in 2008", "answer_start": 312}, {"text": "$41 trillion", "answer_start": 364}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "How much of the global wealth will the wealthiest 1 percent own by 2016?", "id": "5729d36b1d0469140077960a", "answers": [{"text": "half", "answer_start": 949}, {"text": "more than half", "answer_start": 939}, {"text": "own more than half of the global wealth by 2016", "answer_start": 935}, {"text": "more than half", "answer_start": 939}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "In a purely capitalist mode of production (i.e. where professional and labor organizations cannot limit the number of workers) the workers wages will not be controlled by these organizations, or by the employer, but rather by the market. Wages work in the same way as prices for any other good. Thus, wages can be considered as a function of market price of skill. And therefore, inequality is driven by this price. Under the law of supply and demand, the price of skill is determined by a race between the demand for the skilled worker and the supply of the skilled worker. \"On the other hand, markets can also concentrate wealth, pass environmental costs on to society, and abuse workers and consumers.\" \"Markets, by themselves, even when they are stable, often lead to high levels of inequality, outcomes that are widely viewed as unfair.\" Employers who offer a below market wage will find that their business is chronically understaffed. Their competitors will take advantage of the situation by offering a higher wage the best of their labor. For a businessman who has the profit motive as the prime interest, it is a losing proposition to offer below or above market wages to workers.", "qas": [{"question": "What can concentrate wealth, pass environmental costs on to society and abuse both workers and consumers?", "id": "5729d878af94a219006aa66e", "answers": [{"text": "markets", "answer_start": 595}, {"text": "markets", "answer_start": 595}, {"text": "markets", "answer_start": 595}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "A job where there are many workers willing to work a large amount of time (high supply) competing for a job that few require (low demand) will result in a low wage for that job. This is because competition between workers drives down the wage. An example of this would be jobs such as dish-washing or customer service. Competition amongst workers tends to drive down wages due to the expendable nature of the worker in relation to his or her particular job. A job where there are few able or willing workers (low supply), but a large need for the positions (high demand), will result in high wages for that job. This is because competition between employers for employees will drive up the wage. Examples of this would include jobs that require highly developed skills, rare abilities, or a high level of risk. Competition amongst employers tends to drive up wages due to the nature of the job, since there is a relative shortage of workers for the particular position. Professional and labor organizations may limit the supply of workers which results in higher demand and greater incomes for members. Members may also receive higher wages through collective bargaining, political influence, or corruption.", "qas": [{"question": "What type of wages result from jobs where there is low supply but high demand?", "id": "5729da0faf94a219006aa678", "answers": [{"text": "high", "answer_start": 587}, {"text": "high wages", "answer_start": 587}, {"text": "high", "answer_start": 587}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Another cause is the rate at which income is taxed coupled with the progressivity of the tax system. A progressive tax is a tax by which the tax rate increases as the taxable base amount increases. In a progressive tax system, the level of the top tax rate will often have a direct impact on the level of inequality within a society, either increasing it or decreasing it, provided that income does not change as a result of the change in tax regime. Additionally, steeper tax progressivity applied to social spending can result in a more equal distribution of income across the board. The difference between the Gini index for an income distribution before taxation and the Gini index after taxation is an indicator for the effects of such taxation.", "qas": [{"question": "What will have a direct impact of inequality in a system that uses a progressive tax?", "id": "5729e02f1d0469140077963a", "answers": [{"text": "level of the top tax rate", "answer_start": 231}, {"text": "level of the top tax rate", "answer_start": 231}, {"text": "top tax rate", "answer_start": 244}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "An important factor in the creation of inequality is variation in individuals' access to education. Education, especially in an area where there is a high demand for workers, creates high wages for those with this education, however, increases in education first increase and then decrease growth as well as income inequality. As a result, those who are unable to afford an education, or choose not to pursue optional education, generally receive much lower wages. The justification for this is that a lack of education leads directly to lower incomes, and thus lower aggregate savings and investment. Conversely, education raises incomes and promotes growth because it helps to unleash the productive potential of the poor.", "qas": [{"question": "What does education in an area where there is high demand for workers tend to create?", "id": "5729e1101d04691400779642", "answers": [{"text": "high wages", "answer_start": 183}, {"text": "high wages", "answer_start": 183}, {"text": "high wages", "answer_start": 183}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "In 2014, economists with the Standard & Poor's rating agency concluded that the widening disparity between the U.S.'s wealthiest citizens and the rest of the nation had slowed its recovery from the 2008-2009 recession and made it more prone to boom-and-bust cycles. To partially remedy the wealth gap and the resulting slow growth, S&P recommended increasing access to education. It estimated that if the average United States worker had completed just one more year of school, it would add an additional $105 billion in growth to the country's economy over five years.", "qas": [{"question": "If the average U.S. worker were to complete an additional year of school, what amount of growth would be generated over 5 years?", "id": "5729e1e36aef0514001550bd", "answers": [{"text": "$105 billion", "answer_start": 505}, {"text": "$105 billion", "answer_start": 505}, {"text": "$105 billion", "answer_start": 505}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Trade liberalization may shift economic inequality from a global to a domestic scale. When rich countries trade with poor countries, the low-skilled workers in the rich countries may see reduced wages as a result of the competition, while low-skilled workers in the poor countries may see increased wages. Trade economist Paul Krugman estimates that trade liberalisation has had a measurable effect on the rising inequality in the United States. He attributes this trend to increased trade with poor countries and the fragmentation of the means of production, resulting in low skilled jobs becoming more tradeable. However, he concedes that the effect of trade on inequality in America is minor when compared to other causes, such as technological innovation, a view shared by other experts. Empirical economists Max Roser and Jesus Crespo-Cuaresma find support in the data that international trade is increasing income inequality. They empirically confirm the predictions of the Stolper\u2013Samuelson theorem regarding the effects of international trade on the distribution of incomes. Lawrence Katz estimates that trade has only accounted for 5-15% of rising income inequality. Robert Lawrence argues that technological innovation and automation has meant that low-skilled jobs have been replaced by machine labor in wealthier nations, and that wealthier countries no longer have significant numbers of low-skilled manufacturing workers that could be affected by competition from poor countries.", "qas": [{"question": "Compared to other causes, the effect of trade on inequality in America is what?", "id": "5729f1283f37b319004785da", "answers": [{"text": "minor", "answer_start": 689}, {"text": "minor", "answer_start": 689}, {"text": "minor", "answer_start": 689}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "In many countries, there is a Gender pay gap in favor of males in the labor market. Several factors other than discrimination may contribute to this gap. On average, women are more likely than men to consider factors other than pay when looking for work, and may be less willing to travel or relocate. Thomas Sowell, in his book Knowledge and Decisions, claims that this difference is due to women not taking jobs due to marriage or pregnancy, but income studies show that that does not explain the entire difference. A U.S. Census's report stated that in US once other factors are accounted for there is still a difference in earnings between women and men. The income gap in other countries ranges from 53% in Botswana to -40% in Bahrain.", "qas": [{"question": "What does a U.S. census report state that even after other factors there still exists this between earnings of men and women?", "id": "5729f1c13f37b319004785eb", "answers": [{"text": "a difference", "answer_start": 611}, {"text": "difference", "answer_start": 613}, {"text": "difference in earnings", "answer_start": 613}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Plotting the relationship between level of income and inequality, Kuznets saw middle-income developing economies level of inequality bulging out to form what is now known as the Kuznets curve. Kuznets demonstrated this relationship using cross-sectional data. However, more recent testing of this theory with superior panel data has shown it to be very weak. Kuznets' curve predicts that income inequality will eventually decrease given time. As an example, income inequality did fall in the United States during its High school movement from 1910 to 1940 and thereafter.[citation needed] However, recent data shows that the level of income inequality began to rise after the 1970s. This does not necessarily disprove Kuznets' theory.[citation needed] It may be possible that another Kuznets' cycle is occurring, specifically the move from the manufacturing sector to the service sector.[citation needed] This implies that it may be possible for multiple Kuznets' cycles to be in effect at any given time.", "qas": [{"question": "What does Kuznets' curve predict about income inequality given time?", "id": "5729f3883f37b319004785f4", "answers": [{"text": "eventually decrease", "answer_start": 411}, {"text": "eventually decrease", "answer_start": 411}, {"text": "decrease", "answer_start": 422}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "What may be possible for multiple Kuznets' cycles to be in at any given time?", "id": "5729f3883f37b319004785f5", "answers": [{"text": "effect", "answer_start": 980}, {"text": "in effect", "answer_start": 977}, {"text": "effect", "answer_start": 980}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Crime rate has also been shown to be correlated with inequality in society. Most studies looking into the relationship have concentrated on homicides \u2013 since homicides are almost identically defined across all nations and jurisdictions. There have been over fifty studies showing tendencies for violence to be more common in societies where income differences are larger. Research has been conducted comparing developed countries with undeveloped countries, as well as studying areas within countries. Daly et al. 2001 found that among U.S States and Canadian Provinces there is a tenfold difference in homicide rates related to inequality. They estimated that about half of all variation in homicide rates can be accounted for by differences in the amount of inequality in each province or state. Fajnzylber et al. (2002) found a similar relationship worldwide. Among comments in academic literature on the relationship between homicides and inequality are:", "qas": [{"question": "Over how many studies have shown that violence is more common in societies with income differences?", "id": "572a0a391d046914007796e1", "answers": [{"text": "fifty", "answer_start": 258}, {"text": "over fifty", "answer_start": 253}, {"text": "fifty", "answer_start": 258}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Following the utilitarian principle of seeking the greatest good for the greatest number \u2013 economic inequality is problematic. A house that provides less utility to a millionaire as a summer home than it would to a homeless family of five, is an example of reduced \"distributive efficiency\" within society, that decreases marginal utility of wealth and thus the sum total of personal utility. An additional dollar spent by a poor person will go to things providing a great deal of utility to that person, such as basic necessities like food, water, and healthcare; while, an additional dollar spent by a much richer person will very likely go to luxury items providing relatively less utility to that person. Thus, the marginal utility of wealth per person (\"the additional dollar\") decreases as a person becomes richer. From this standpoint, for any given amount of wealth in society, a society with more equality will have higher aggregate utility. Some studies have found evidence for this theory, noting that in societies where inequality is lower, population-wide satisfaction and happiness tend to be higher.", "qas": [{"question": "What the marginal utility of wealth per income per person do as that person becomes richer?", "id": "572a0bafaf94a219006aa768", "answers": [{"text": "decreases", "answer_start": 783}, {"text": "decreases", "answer_start": 783}, {"text": "decreases", "answer_start": 783}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "According to International Monetary Fund economists, inequality in wealth and income is negatively correlated with the duration of economic growth spells (not the rate of growth). High levels of inequality prevent not just economic prosperity, but also the quality of a country's institutions and high levels of education. According to IMF staff economists, \"if the income share of the top 20 percent (the rich) increases, then GDP growth actually declines over the medium term, suggesting that the benefits do not trickle down. In contrast, an increase in the income share of the bottom 20 percent (the poor) is associated with higher GDP growth. The poor and the middle class matter the most for growth via a number of interrelated economic, social, and political channels.\"", "qas": [{"question": "What happens to the GDP growth of a country if the income share of the top 20 percent increases, according to IMF staff economists? ", "id": "572a0e0e1d04691400779709", "answers": [{"text": "declines", "answer_start": 448}, {"text": "declines", "answer_start": 448}, {"text": "declines", "answer_start": 448}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "In 1993, Galor and Zeira showed that inequality in the presence of credit market imperfections has a long lasting detrimental effect on human capital formation and economic development. A 1996 study by Perotti examined the channels through which inequality may affect economic growth. He showed that, in accordance with the credit market imperfection approach, inequality is associated with lower level of human capital formation (education, experience, and apprenticeship) and higher level of fertility, and thereby lower levels of growth. He found that inequality is associated with higher levels of redistributive taxation, which is associated with lower levels of growth from reductions in private savings and investment. Perotti concluded that, \"more equal societies have lower fertility rates and higher rates of investment in education. Both are reflected in higher rates of growth. Also, very unequal societies tend to be politically and socially unstable, which is reflected in lower rates of investment and therefore growth.\"", "qas": [{"question": "Inequality in the presence of credit market imperfections has what kind of effect on human capital formation?", "id": "572a11663f37b31900478694", "answers": [{"text": "detrimental", "answer_start": 114}, {"text": "long lasting detrimental effect", "answer_start": 101}, {"text": "long lasting detrimental", "answer_start": 101}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Research by Harvard economist Robert Barro, found that there is \"little overall relation between income inequality and rates of growth and investment\". According to work by Barro in 1999 and 2000, high levels of inequality reduce growth in relatively poor countries but encourage growth in richer countries. A study of Swedish counties between 1960 and 2000 found a positive impact of inequality on growth with lead times of five years or less, but no correlation after ten years. Studies of larger data sets have found no correlations for any fixed lead time, and a negative impact on the duration of growth.", "qas": [{"question": "Barro found there is little relation between income inequality and rates of what?", "id": "572a12381d0469140077972c", "answers": [{"text": "growth and investment", "answer_start": 128}, {"text": "growth and investment", "answer_start": 128}, {"text": "growth and investment", "answer_start": 128}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Studies on income inequality and growth have sometimes found evidence confirming the Kuznets curve hypothesis, which states that with economic development, inequality first increases, then decreases. Economist Thomas Piketty challenges this notion, claiming that from 1914 to 1945 wars and \"violent economic and political shocks\" reduced inequality. Moreover, Piketty argues that the \"magical\" Kuznets curve hypothesis, with its emphasis on the balancing of economic growth in the long run, cannot account for the significant increase in economic inequality throughout the developed world since the 1970s.", "qas": [{"question": "What have studies on income inequality sometimes found evidence confirming?", "id": "572a13841d0469140077973b", "answers": [{"text": "Kuznets curve hypothesis", "answer_start": 85}, {"text": "Kuznets curve hypothesis", "answer_start": 85}, {"text": "Kuznets curve hypothesis", "answer_start": 85}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "In many poor and developing countries much land and housing is held outside the formal or legal property ownership registration system. Much unregistered property is held in informal form through various associations and other arrangements. Reasons for extra-legal ownership include excessive bureaucratic red tape in buying property and building, In some countries it can take over 200 steps and up to 14 years to build on government land. Other causes of extra-legal property are failures to notarize transaction documents or having documents notarized but failing to have them recorded with the official agency.", "qas": [{"question": "In some countries over how many steps can it take to build on government land?", "id": "572a1ba46aef051400155291", "answers": [{"text": "200", "answer_start": 383}, {"text": "200", "answer_start": 383}, {"text": "200", "answer_start": 383}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Socialists attribute the vast disparities in wealth to the private ownership of the means of production by a class of owners, creating a situation where a small portion of the population lives off unearned property income by virtue of ownership titles in capital equipment, financial assets and corporate stock. By contrast, the vast majority of the population is dependent on income in the form of a wage or salary. In order to rectify this situation, socialists argue that the means of production should be socially owned so that income differentials would be reflective of individual contributions to the social product.", "qas": [{"question": "What would income differentials be if individual contributions were relevant to the social product?", "id": "572a1fe16aef0514001552d4", "answers": [{"text": "reflective", "answer_start": 562}, {"text": "reflective", "answer_start": 562}, {"text": "reflective of individual contributions", "answer_start": 562}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The capabilities approach \u2013 sometimes called the human development approach \u2013 looks at income inequality and poverty as form of \u201ccapability deprivation\u201d. Unlike neoliberalism, which \u201cdefines well-being as utility maximization\u201d, economic growth and income are considered a means to an end rather than the end itself. Its goal is to \u201cwid[en] people\u2019s choices and the level of their achieved well-being\u201d through increasing functionings (the things a person values doing), capabilities (the freedom to enjoy functionings) and agency (the ability to pursue valued goals).", "qas": [{"question": "In the capabilities approach, grow and income are considered a means to an end rather than what?", "id": "572a213e6aef0514001552ef", "answers": [{"text": "the end itself", "answer_start": 300}, {"text": "the end itself", "answer_start": 300}, {"text": "the end itself", "answer_start": 300}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "University_of_Chicago", "paragraphs": [{"context": "After the 1940s, the Gothic style on campus began to give way to modern styles. In 1955, Eero Saarinen was contracted to develop a second master plan, which led to the construction of buildings both north and south of the Midway, including the Laird Bell Law Quadrangle (a complex designed by Saarinen); a series of arts buildings; a building designed by Ludwig Mies van der Rohe for the university's School of Social Service Administration;, a building which is to become the home of the Harris School of Public Policy Studies by Edward Durrell Stone, and the Regenstein Library, the largest building on campus, a brutalist structure designed by Walter Netsch of the Chicago firm Skidmore, Owings & Merrill. Another master plan, designed in 1999 and updated in 2004, produced the Gerald Ratner Athletics Center (2003), the Max Palevsky Residential Commons (2001), South Campus Residence Hall and dining commons (2009), a new children's hospital, and other construction, expansions, and restorations. In 2011, the university completed the glass dome-shaped Joe and Rika Mansueto Library, which provides a grand reading room for the university library and prevents the need for an off-campus book depository.", "qas": [{"question": "What administration did Ludwig Mies van der Rohe designa buiding?", "id": "57284d484b864d1900164902", "answers": [{"text": "School of Social Service Administration", "answer_start": 401}, {"text": "School of Social Service Administration", "answer_start": 401}, {"text": "the university's School of Social Service Administration", "answer_start": 384}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "In the fall quarter of 2014, the University of Chicago enrolled 5,792 students in the College, 3,468 students in its four graduate divisions, 5,984 students in its professional schools, and 15,244 students overall. In the 2012 Spring Quarter, international students comprised almost 19% of the overall study body, over 26% of students were domestic ethnic minorities, and about 44% of enrolled students were female. Admissions to the University of Chicago is highly selective. The middle 50% band of SAT scores for the undergraduate class of 2015, excluding the writing section, was 1420\u20131530, the average MCAT score for entering students in the Pritzker School of Medicine in 2011 was 36, and the median LSAT score for entering students in the Law School in 2011 was 171. In 2015, the College of the University of Chicago had an acceptance rate of 7.8% for the Class of 2019, the lowest in the college's history.", "qas": [{"question": "Who made up 19% of the student body in the 2012 Spring Quarter? ", "id": "572863363acd2414000df989", "answers": [{"text": "international students", "answer_start": 243}, {"text": "international students", "answer_start": 243}, {"text": "international students", "answer_start": 243}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Students at the University of Chicago run over 400 clubs and organizations known as Recognized Student Organizations (RSOs). These include cultural and religious groups, academic clubs and teams, and common-interest organizations. Notable extracurricular groups include the University of Chicago College Bowl Team, which has won 118 tournaments and 15 national championships, leading both categories internationally. The university's competitive Model United Nations team was the top ranked team in North America in 2013-14 and 2014-2015. Among notable RSOs are the nation's longest continuously running student film society Doc Films, organizing committee for the University of Chicago Scavenger Hunt, the twice-weekly student newspaper The Chicago Maroon, the alternative weekly student newspaper South Side Weekly, the nation's second oldest continuously running student improvisational theater troupe Off-Off Campus, and the university-owned radio station WHPK.", "qas": [{"question": "What is the name of the country's longest continuously running student film society?", "id": "5728659f4b864d190016498d", "answers": [{"text": "Doc Films", "answer_start": 625}, {"text": "Doc Films", "answer_start": 625}, {"text": "Doc Films", "answer_start": 625}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Immune_system", "paragraphs": [{"context": "The immune system protects organisms from infection with layered defenses of increasing specificity. In simple terms, physical barriers prevent pathogens such as bacteria and viruses from entering the organism. If a pathogen breaches these barriers, the innate immune system provides an immediate, but non-specific response. Innate immune systems are found in all plants and animals. If pathogens successfully evade the innate response, vertebrates possess a second layer of protection, the adaptive immune system, which is activated by the innate response. Here, the immune system adapts its response during an infection to improve its recognition of the pathogen. This improved response is then retained after the pathogen has been eliminated, in the form of an immunological memory, and allows the adaptive immune system to mount faster and stronger attacks each time this pathogen is encountered.", "qas": [{"question": "What type of immune systems are found in all plants and animals?", "id": "5728f6446aef0514001548e4", "answers": [{"text": "Innate immune systems", "answer_start": 325}, {"text": "Innate", "answer_start": 325}, {"text": "Innate immune systems", "answer_start": 325}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Inflammation is one of the first responses of the immune system to infection. The symptoms of inflammation are redness, swelling, heat, and pain, which are caused by increased blood flow into tissue. Inflammation is produced by eicosanoids and cytokines, which are released by injured or infected cells. Eicosanoids include prostaglandins that produce fever and the dilation of blood vessels associated with inflammation, and leukotrienes that attract certain white blood cells (leukocytes). Common cytokines include interleukins that are responsible for communication between white blood cells; chemokines that promote chemotaxis; and interferons that have anti-viral effects, such as shutting down protein synthesis in the host cell. Growth factors and cytotoxic factors may also be released. These cytokines and other chemicals recruit immune cells to the site of infection and promote healing of any damaged tissue following the removal of pathogens.", "qas": [{"question": "What cytokines are responsible for communication between white blood cells?", "id": "572900f73f37b31900477f6d", "answers": [{"text": "interleukins", "answer_start": 517}, {"text": "interleukins", "answer_start": 517}, {"text": "interleukins", "answer_start": 517}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Both B cells and T cells carry receptor molecules that recognize specific targets. T cells recognize a \"non-self\" target, such as a pathogen, only after antigens (small fragments of the pathogen) have been processed and presented in combination with a \"self\" receptor called a major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule. There are two major subtypes of T cells: the killer T cell and the helper T cell. In addition there are regulatory T cells which have a role in modulating immune response. Killer T cells only recognize antigens coupled to Class I MHC molecules, while helper T cells and regulatory T cells only recognize antigens coupled to Class II MHC molecules. These two mechanisms of antigen presentation reflect the different roles of the two types of T cell. A third, minor subtype are the \u03b3\u03b4 T cells that recognize intact antigens that are not bound to MHC receptors.", "qas": [{"question": "Helper and regulatory T cells can only recognize antigens coupled to what kind of molecules?", "id": "5729f1fcaf94a219006aa6d6", "answers": [{"text": "Class II MHC molecules", "answer_start": 650}, {"text": "Class II MHC", "answer_start": 650}, {"text": "Class II MHC molecules", "answer_start": 650}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Killer T cells are a sub-group of T cells that kill cells that are infected with viruses (and other pathogens), or are otherwise damaged or dysfunctional. As with B cells, each type of T cell recognizes a different antigen. Killer T cells are activated when their T cell receptor (TCR) binds to this specific antigen in a complex with the MHC Class I receptor of another cell. Recognition of this MHC:antigen complex is aided by a co-receptor on the T cell, called CD8. The T cell then travels throughout the body in search of cells where the MHC I receptors bear this antigen. When an activated T cell contacts such cells, it releases cytotoxins, such as perforin, which form pores in the target cell's plasma membrane, allowing ions, water and toxins to enter. The entry of another toxin called granulysin (a protease) induces the target cell to undergo apoptosis. T cell killing of host cells is particularly important in preventing the replication of viruses. T cell activation is tightly controlled and generally requires a very strong MHC/antigen activation signal, or additional activation signals provided by \"helper\" T cells (see below).", "qas": [{"question": "What is the receptor that killer T cells use to bind to specific antigens that are complexed with the MHC Class 1 receptor of another cell?", "id": "5729f39a6aef05140015514d", "answers": [{"text": "T cell receptor (TCR)", "answer_start": 264}, {"text": "T cell receptor", "answer_start": 264}, {"text": "T cell receptor (TCR)", "answer_start": 264}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Helper T cells express T cell receptors (TCR) that recognize antigen bound to Class II MHC molecules. The MHC:antigen complex is also recognized by the helper cell's CD4 co-receptor, which recruits molecules inside the T cell (e.g., Lck) that are responsible for the T cell's activation. Helper T cells have a weaker association with the MHC:antigen complex than observed for killer T cells, meaning many receptors (around 200\u2013300) on the helper T cell must be bound by an MHC:antigen in order to activate the helper cell, while killer T cells can be activated by engagement of a single MHC:antigen molecule. Helper T cell activation also requires longer duration of engagement with an antigen-presenting cell. The activation of a resting helper T cell causes it to release cytokines that influence the activity of many cell types. Cytokine signals produced by helper T cells enhance the microbicidal function of macrophages and the activity of killer T cells. In addition, helper T cell activation causes an upregulation of molecules expressed on the T cell's surface, such as CD40 ligand (also called CD154), which provide extra stimulatory signals typically required to activate antibody-producing B cells.", "qas": [{"question": "How many receptors on a helper T cell must be bound to a MHC:antigen complex in order for the cell to be activated?", "id": "5729f4b41d0469140077968c", "answers": [{"text": "around 200\u2013300", "answer_start": 416}, {"text": "around 200\u2013300", "answer_start": 416}, {"text": "around 200\u2013300", "answer_start": 416}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Gamma delta T cells (\u03b3\u03b4 T cells) possess an alternative T cell receptor (TCR) as opposed to CD4+ and CD8+ (\u03b1\u03b2) T cells and share the characteristics of helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells and NK cells. The conditions that produce responses from \u03b3\u03b4 T cells are not fully understood. Like other 'unconventional' T cell subsets bearing invariant TCRs, such as CD1d-restricted Natural Killer T cells, \u03b3\u03b4 T cells straddle the border between innate and adaptive immunity. On one hand, \u03b3\u03b4 T cells are a component of adaptive immunity as they rearrange TCR genes to produce receptor diversity and can also develop a memory phenotype. On the other hand, the various subsets are also part of the innate immune system, as restricted TCR or NK receptors may be used as pattern recognition receptors. For example, large numbers of human V\u03b39/V\u03b42 T cells respond within hours to common molecules produced by microbes, and highly restricted V\u03b41+ T cells in epithelia respond to stressed epithelial cells.", "qas": [{"question": "What kind of human T cells respond to common molecules produced by microbes?", "id": "5729f5a03f37b31900478609", "answers": [{"text": "V\u03b39/V\u03b42 T cells", "answer_start": 822}, {"text": "V\u03b39/V\u03b42", "answer_start": 822}, {"text": "V\u03b39/V\u03b42 T cells", "answer_start": 822}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "A B cell identifies pathogens when antibodies on its surface bind to a specific foreign antigen. This antigen/antibody complex is taken up by the B cell and processed by proteolysis into peptides. The B cell then displays these antigenic peptides on its surface MHC class II molecules. This combination of MHC and antigen attracts a matching helper T cell, which releases lymphokines and activates the B cell. As the activated B cell then begins to divide, its offspring (plasma cells) secrete millions of copies of the antibody that recognizes this antigen. These antibodies circulate in blood plasma and lymph, bind to pathogens expressing the antigen and mark them for destruction by complement activation or for uptake and destruction by phagocytes. Antibodies can also neutralize challenges directly, by binding to bacterial toxins or by interfering with the receptors that viruses and bacteria use to infect cells.", "qas": [{"question": "What does the matching helper T cell release when it binds with the MHC:antigen complex of the B cell?", "id": "5729f69caf94a219006aa6fb", "answers": [{"text": "lymphokines", "answer_start": 372}, {"text": "lymphokines", "answer_start": 372}, {"text": "lymphokines", "answer_start": 372}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Hormones can act as immunomodulators, altering the sensitivity of the immune system. For example, female sex hormones are known immunostimulators of both adaptive and innate immune responses. Some autoimmune diseases such as lupus erythematosus strike women preferentially, and their onset often coincides with puberty. By contrast, male sex hormones such as testosterone seem to be immunosuppressive. Other hormones appear to regulate the immune system as well, most notably prolactin, growth hormone and vitamin D.", "qas": [{"question": "Female sex hormones are immunostimulators of which immune responses?", "id": "5729f9953f37b31900478620", "answers": [{"text": "adaptive and innate immune responses", "answer_start": 154}, {"text": "both adaptive and innate", "answer_start": 149}, {"text": "adaptive and innate immune responses", "answer_start": 154}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "It is conjectured that a progressive decline in hormone levels with age is partially responsible for weakened immune responses in aging individuals. Conversely, some hormones are regulated by the immune system, notably thyroid hormone activity. The age-related decline in immune function is also related to decreasing vitamin D levels in the elderly. As people age, two things happen that negatively affect their vitamin D levels. First, they stay indoors more due to decreased activity levels. This means that they get less sun and therefore produce less cholecalciferol via UVB radiation. Second, as a person ages the skin becomes less adept at producing vitamin D.", "qas": [{"question": "Older people get less sun and produce less of what chemical via UVB radiation?", "id": "5729fb003f37b3190047862a", "answers": [{"text": "cholecalciferol", "answer_start": 556}, {"text": "cholecalciferol", "answer_start": 556}, {"text": "cholecalciferol", "answer_start": 556}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The main response of the immune system to tumors is to destroy the abnormal cells using killer T cells, sometimes with the assistance of helper T cells. Tumor antigens are presented on MHC class I molecules in a similar way to viral antigens. This allows killer T cells to recognize the tumor cell as abnormal. NK cells also kill tumorous cells in a similar way, especially if the tumor cells have fewer MHC class I molecules on their surface than normal; this is a common phenomenon with tumors. Sometimes antibodies are generated against tumor cells allowing for their destruction by the complement system.", "qas": [{"question": "Tumor antigens are complexed with MHC class I molecules in the same way as what antigens?", "id": "5729fc3d1d0469140077969f", "answers": [{"text": "viral antigens", "answer_start": 227}, {"text": "viral", "answer_start": 227}, {"text": "viral antigens", "answer_start": 227}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Unlike animals, plants lack phagocytic cells, but many plant immune responses involve systemic chemical signals that are sent through a plant. Individual plant cells respond to molecules associated with pathogens known as Pathogen-associated molecular patterns or PAMPs. When a part of a plant becomes infected, the plant produces a localized hypersensitive response, whereby cells at the site of infection undergo rapid apoptosis to prevent the spread of the disease to other parts of the plant. Systemic acquired resistance (SAR) is a type of defensive response used by plants that renders the entire plant resistant to a particular infectious agent. RNA silencing mechanisms are particularly important in this systemic response as they can block virus replication.", "qas": [{"question": "Plant cells respond to the molecules associated with pathogens known as what?", "id": "5729fd111d046914007796a6", "answers": [{"text": "Pathogen-associated molecular patterns", "answer_start": 222}, {"text": "Pathogen-associated molecular patterns", "answer_start": 222}, {"text": "Pathogen-associated molecular patterns or PAMPs", "answer_start": 222}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "Cells of the site of an infection in a plant undergo what process to prevent spread of the disease?", "id": "5729fd111d046914007796a7", "answers": [{"text": "apoptosis", "answer_start": 421}, {"text": "apoptosis", "answer_start": 421}, {"text": "rapid apoptosis", "answer_start": 415}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "In contrast, during wake periods differentiated effector cells, such as cytotoxic natural killer cells and CTLs (cytotoxic T lymphocytes), peak in order to elicit an effective response against any intruding pathogens. As well during awake active times, anti-inflammatory molecules, such as cortisol and catecholamines, peak. There are two theories as to why the pro-inflammatory state is reserved for sleep time. First, inflammation would cause serious cognitive and physical impairments if it were to occur during wake times. Second, inflammation may occur during sleep times due to the presence of melatonin. Inflammation causes a great deal of oxidative stress and the presence of melatonin during sleep times could actively counteract free radical production during this time.", "qas": [{"question": "What are two anti-inflammatory molecules that peak during awake hours?", "id": "572a04d51d046914007796ce", "answers": [{"text": "cortisol and catecholamines", "answer_start": 290}, {"text": "cortisol and catecholamines", "answer_start": 290}, {"text": "cortisol and catecholamines", "answer_start": 290}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Evolution of the adaptive immune system occurred in an ancestor of the jawed vertebrates. Many of the classical molecules of the adaptive immune system (e.g., immunoglobulins and T cell receptors) exist only in jawed vertebrates. However, a distinct lymphocyte-derived molecule has been discovered in primitive jawless vertebrates, such as the lamprey and hagfish. These animals possess a large array of molecules called Variable lymphocyte receptors (VLRs) that, like the antigen receptors of jawed vertebrates, are produced from only a small number (one or two) of genes. These molecules are believed to bind pathogenic antigens in a similar way to antibodies, and with the same degree of specificity.", "qas": [{"question": "What molecules of the adaptive immune system only exist in jawed vertebrates?", "id": "572a07fc6aef0514001551dc", "answers": [{"text": "immunoglobulins and T cell receptors", "answer_start": 159}, {"text": "immunoglobulins and T cell receptors", "answer_start": 159}, {"text": "immunoglobulins", "answer_start": 159}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "An evasion strategy used by several pathogens to avoid the innate immune system is to hide within the cells of their host (also called intracellular pathogenesis). Here, a pathogen spends most of its life-cycle inside host cells, where it is shielded from direct contact with immune cells, antibodies and complement. Some examples of intracellular pathogens include viruses, the food poisoning bacterium Salmonella and the eukaryotic parasites that cause malaria (Plasmodium falciparum) and leishmaniasis (Leishmania spp.). Other bacteria, such as Mycobacterium tuberculosis, live inside a protective capsule that prevents lysis by complement. Many pathogens secrete compounds that diminish or misdirect the host's immune response. Some bacteria form biofilms to protect themselves from the cells and proteins of the immune system. Such biofilms are present in many successful infections, e.g., the chronic Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Burkholderia cenocepacia infections characteristic of cystic fibrosis. Other bacteria generate surface proteins that bind to antibodies, rendering them ineffective; examples include Streptococcus (protein G), Staphylococcus aureus (protein A), and Peptostreptococcus magnus (protein L).", "qas": [{"question": "What is the process by which pathogens evade the immune system by hiding inside the host cells called?", "id": "572a0ce11d046914007796fd", "answers": [{"text": "intracellular pathogenesis", "answer_start": 135}, {"text": "intracellular pathogenesis", "answer_start": 135}, {"text": "intracellular pathogenesis", "answer_start": 135}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Another important role of the immune system is to identify and eliminate tumors. This is called immune surveillance. The transformed cells of tumors express antigens that are not found on normal cells. To the immune system, these antigens appear foreign, and their presence causes immune cells to attack the transformed tumor cells. The antigens expressed by tumors have several sources; some are derived from oncogenic viruses like human papillomavirus, which causes cervical cancer, while others are the organism's own proteins that occur at low levels in normal cells but reach high levels in tumor cells. One example is an enzyme called tyrosinase that, when expressed at high levels, transforms certain skin cells (e.g. melanocytes) into tumors called melanomas. A third possible source of tumor antigens are proteins normally important for regulating cell growth and survival, that commonly mutate into cancer inducing molecules called oncogenes.", "qas": [{"question": "What is an example of an enzyme that can transform skin cells into tumors when expressed at high levels?", "id": "572a0f073f37b31900478681", "answers": [{"text": "tyrosinase", "answer_start": 641}, {"text": "tyrosinase", "answer_start": 641}, {"text": "tyrosinase", "answer_start": 641}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Intergovernmental_Panel_on_Climate_Change", "paragraphs": [{"context": "The executive summary of the WG I Summary for Policymakers report says they are certain that emissions resulting from human activities are substantially increasing the atmospheric concentrations of the greenhouse gases, resulting on average in an additional warming of the Earth's surface. They calculate with confidence that CO2 has been responsible for over half the enhanced greenhouse effect. They predict that under a \"business as usual\" (BAU) scenario, global mean temperature will increase by about 0.3 \u00b0C per decade during the [21st] century. They judge that global mean surface air temperature has increased by 0.3 to 0.6 \u00b0C over the last 100 years, broadly consistent with prediction of climate models, but also of the same magnitude as natural climate variability. The unequivocal detection of the enhanced greenhouse effect is not likely for a decade or more.", "qas": [{"question": "How much has global mean surface air temperature changed in the last century?", "id": "57293e221d046914007791d9", "answers": [{"text": "increased by 0.3 to 0.6 \u00b0C", "answer_start": 607}, {"text": "0.3 to 0.6 \u00b0C", "answer_start": 620}, {"text": "0.3 to 0.6 \u00b0C", "answer_start": 620}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The third assessment report (TAR) prominently featured a graph labeled \"Millennial Northern Hemisphere temperature reconstruction\" based on a 1999 paper by Michael E. Mann, Raymond S. Bradley and Malcolm K. Hughes (MBH99), which has been referred to as the \"hockey stick graph\". This graph extended the similar graph in Figure 3.20 from the IPCC Second Assessment Report of 1995, and differed from a schematic in the first assessment report that lacked temperature units, but appeared to depict larger global temperature variations over the past 1000 years, and higher temperatures during the Medieval Warm Period than the mid 20th century. The schematic was not an actual plot of data, and was based on a diagram of temperatures in central England, with temperatures increased on the basis of documentary evidence of Medieval vineyards in England. Even with this increase, the maximum it showed for the Medieval Warm Period did not reach temperatures recorded in central England in 2007. The MBH99 finding was supported by cited reconstructions by Jones et al. 1998, Pollack, Huang & Shen 1998, Crowley & Lowery 2000 and Briffa 2000, using differing data and methods. The Jones et al. and Briffa reconstructions were overlaid with the MBH99 reconstruction in Figure 2.21 of the IPCC report.", "qas": [{"question": "When was the paper published that the \"Millennial Northern Hemisphere temperature reconstruction\" graph was based on?", "id": "57294209af94a219006aa201", "answers": [{"text": "1999", "answer_start": 142}, {"text": "1999", "answer_start": 142}, {"text": "1999", "answer_start": 142}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "Who wrote the paper that the \"Millennial Northern Hemisphere temperature reconstruction\" graph was based on?", "id": "57294209af94a219006aa202", "answers": [{"text": "Michael E. Mann, Raymond S. Bradley and Malcolm K. Hughes", "answer_start": 156}, {"text": "Michael E. Mann, Raymond S. Bradley and Malcolm K. Hughes", "answer_start": 156}, {"text": "Michael E. Mann, Raymond S. Bradley and Malcolm K. Hughes", "answer_start": 156}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Another example of scientific research which suggests that previous estimates by the IPCC, far from overstating dangers and risks, have actually understated them is a study on projected rises in sea levels. When the researchers' analysis was \"applied to the possible scenarios outlined by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), the researchers found that in 2100 sea levels would be 0.5\u20131.4 m [50\u2013140 cm] above 1990 levels. These values are much greater than the 9\u201388 cm as projected by the IPCC itself in its Third Assessment Report, published in 2001\". This may have been due, in part, to the expanding human understanding of climate.", "qas": [{"question": "How much did the IPCC Third Assessment Report say sea levels will rise from 1990 to 2100?", "id": "572949306aef051400154c69", "answers": [{"text": "9\u201388 cm", "answer_start": 478}, {"text": "0.5\u20131.4 m", "answer_start": 398}, {"text": "9\u201388 cm", "answer_start": 478}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Prime_number", "paragraphs": [{"context": "Many questions regarding prime numbers remain open, such as Goldbach's conjecture (that every even integer greater than 2 can be expressed as the sum of two primes), and the twin prime conjecture (that there are infinitely many pairs of primes whose difference is 2). Such questions spurred the development of various branches of number theory, focusing on analytic or algebraic aspects of numbers. Primes are used in several routines in information technology, such as public-key cryptography, which makes use of properties such as the difficulty of factoring large numbers into their prime factors. Prime numbers give rise to various generalizations in other mathematical domains, mainly algebra, such as prime elements and prime ideals.", "qas": [{"question": "What is the name of the supposition that there are infinite pairs of primes whose difference is 2?", "id": "5729727baf94a219006aa438", "answers": [{"text": "the twin prime conjecture", "answer_start": 170}, {"text": "twin prime conjecture", "answer_start": 174}, {"text": "twin prime conjecture", "answer_start": 174}, {"text": "twin prime conjecture", "answer_start": 174}, {"text": "twin prime conjecture", "answer_start": 174}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The following table gives the largest known primes of the mentioned types. Some of these primes have been found using distributed computing. In 2009, the Great Internet Mersenne Prime Search project was awarded a US$100,000 prize for first discovering a prime with at least 10 million digits. The Electronic Frontier Foundation also offers $150,000 and $250,000 for primes with at least 100 million digits and 1 billion digits, respectively. Some of the largest primes not known to have any particular form (that is, no simple formula such as that of Mersenne primes) have been found by taking a piece of semi-random binary data, converting it to a number n, multiplying it by 256k for some positive integer k, and searching for possible primes within the interval [256kn + 1, 256k(n + 1) \u2212 1].[citation needed]", "qas": [{"question": "the Great Internet Mersenne Prime Search, what was the prize for finding a prime with at least 10 million digits?", "id": "572982e66aef051400154f94", "answers": [{"text": "US$100,000", "answer_start": 213}, {"text": "US$100,000", "answer_start": 213}, {"text": "US$100,000", "answer_start": 213}, {"text": "$100,000", "answer_start": 215}, {"text": "US$100,000", "answer_start": 213}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "are prime for any natural number n. Here  represents the floor function, i.e., largest integer not greater than the number in question. The latter formula can be shown using Bertrand's postulate (proven first by Chebyshev), which states that there always exists at least one prime number p with n < p < 2n \u2212 2, for any natural number n > 3. However, computing A or \u03bc requires the knowledge of infinitely many primes to begin with. Another formula is based on Wilson's theorem and generates the number 2 many times and all other primes exactly once.", "qas": [{"question": "On what theorem is the formula that frequently generates the number 2 and all other primes precisely once based on?", "id": "572985011d04691400779505", "answers": [{"text": "Wilson's theorem", "answer_start": 459}, {"text": "Wilson's", "answer_start": 459}, {"text": "Wilson's", "answer_start": 459}, {"text": "Wilson's theorem", "answer_start": 459}, {"text": "Wilson's theorem", "answer_start": 459}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The zeta function is closely related to prime numbers. For example, the aforementioned fact that there are infinitely many primes can also be seen using the zeta function: if there were only finitely many primes then \u03b6(1) would have a finite value. However, the harmonic series 1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + ... diverges (i.e., exceeds any given number), so there must be infinitely many primes. Another example of the richness of the zeta function and a glimpse of modern algebraic number theory is the following identity (Basel problem), due to Euler,", "qas": [{"question": "What type of value would the zeta function have if there were finite primes?", "id": "572989846aef051400154fc1", "answers": [{"text": "a finite value", "answer_start": 233}, {"text": "finite", "answer_start": 235}, {"text": "finite", "answer_start": 235}, {"text": "finite", "answer_start": 235}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "What property of the harmonic series 1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + ... shows that there is an infinite number of primes?", "id": "572989846aef051400154fc2", "answers": [{"text": "diverges", "answer_start": 304}, {"text": "diverges", "answer_start": 304}, {"text": "exceeds any given number", "answer_start": 320}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "In addition to the Riemann hypothesis, many more conjectures revolving about primes have been posed. Often having an elementary formulation, many of these conjectures have withstood a proof for decades: all four of Landau's problems from 1912 are still unsolved. One of them is Goldbach's conjecture, which asserts that every even integer n greater than 2 can be written as a sum of two primes. As of February 2011[update], this conjecture has been verified for all numbers up to n = 2 \u00b7 1017. Weaker statements than this have been proven, for example Vinogradov's theorem says that every sufficiently large odd integer can be written as a sum of three primes. Chen's theorem says that every sufficiently large even number can be expressed as the sum of a prime and a semiprime, the product of two primes. Also, any even integer can be written as the sum of six primes. The branch of number theory studying such questions is called additive number theory.", "qas": [{"question": "Which conjecture holds that every even integer n greater than 2 can be expressed as a sum of two primes?", "id": "57299021af94a219006aa50c", "answers": [{"text": "Goldbach's conjecture", "answer_start": 278}, {"text": "Goldbach's", "answer_start": 278}, {"text": "Goldbach's", "answer_start": 278}, {"text": "Goldbach's", "answer_start": 278}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "Which theorem states that every large even integer can be written as a prime summed with a semiprime?", "id": "57299021af94a219006aa50f", "answers": [{"text": "Chen's theorem", "answer_start": 661}, {"text": "Chen's", "answer_start": 661}, {"text": "Chen's theorem", "answer_start": 661}, {"text": "Chen's theorem", "answer_start": 661}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "A third type of conjectures concerns aspects of the distribution of primes. It is conjectured that there are infinitely many twin primes, pairs of primes with difference 2 (twin prime conjecture). Polignac's conjecture is a strengthening of that conjecture, it states that for every positive integer n, there are infinitely many pairs of consecutive primes that differ by 2n. It is conjectured there are infinitely many primes of the form n2 + 1. These conjectures are special cases of the broad Schinzel's hypothesis H. Brocard's conjecture says that there are always at least four primes between the squares of consecutive primes greater than 2. Legendre's conjecture states that there is a prime number between n2 and (n + 1)2 for every positive integer n. It is implied by the stronger Cram\u00e9r's conjecture.", "qas": [{"question": "Of what form is the infinite amount of primes that comprise the special cases of Schinzel's hypothesis?", "id": "572991943f37b319004784a4", "answers": [{"text": "n2 + 1", "answer_start": 439}, {"text": "n2 + 1", "answer_start": 439}, {"text": "n2 + 1.", "answer_start": 439}, {"text": "n2 + 1", "answer_start": 439}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Giuga's conjecture says that this equation is also a sufficient condition for p to be prime. Another consequence of Fermat's little theorem is the following: if p is a prime number other than 2 and 5, 1/p is always a recurring decimal, whose period is p \u2212 1 or a divisor of p \u2212 1. The fraction 1/p expressed likewise in base q (rather than base 10) has similar effect, provided that p is not a prime factor of q. Wilson's theorem says that an integer p > 1 is prime if and only if the factorial (p \u2212 1)! + 1 is divisible by p. Moreover, an integer n > 4 is composite if and only if (n \u2212 1)! is divisible by n.", "qas": [{"question": "Assuming p is a prime other than 2 or 5, then, according to Fermat's theorem, what type of decimal will 1/p always be?", "id": "572995d46aef051400154fe8", "answers": [{"text": "a recurring decimal", "answer_start": 215}, {"text": "recurring", "answer_start": 217}, {"text": "recurring", "answer_start": 217}, {"text": "recurring", "answer_start": 217}, {"text": "recurring", "answer_start": 217}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "According to Wilson's theorem, what factorial must be divisible by p if some integer p > 1 is to be considered prime?", "id": "572995d46aef051400154fea", "answers": [{"text": "(p \u2212 1)! + 1", "answer_start": 495}, {"text": "(p \u2212 1)! + 1", "answer_start": 495}, {"text": "(p \u2212 1)! + 1", "answer_start": 495}, {"text": "(p \u2212 1)! + 1", "answer_start": 495}, {"text": "(p \u2212 1)! + 1", "answer_start": 495}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "In ring theory, the notion of number is generally replaced with that of ideal. Prime ideals, which generalize prime elements in the sense that the principal ideal generated by a prime element is a prime ideal, are an important tool and object of study in commutative algebra, algebraic number theory and algebraic geometry. The prime ideals of the ring of integers are the ideals (0), (2), (3), (5), (7), (11), \u2026 The fundamental theorem of arithmetic generalizes to the Lasker\u2013Noether theorem, which expresses every ideal in a Noetherian commutative ring as an intersection of primary ideals, which are the appropriate generalizations of prime powers.", "qas": [{"question": "What type of commutative ring does the Lasker\u2013Noether theorem express every ideal as an intersection of primary ideals in?", "id": "57299ec43f37b31900478511", "answers": [{"text": "a Noetherian commutative ring", "answer_start": 525}, {"text": "Noetherian", "answer_start": 527}, {"text": "Noetherian commutative ring", "answer_start": 527}, {"text": "Noetherian", "answer_start": 527}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Prime numbers have influenced many artists and writers. The French composer Olivier Messiaen used prime numbers to create ametrical music through \"natural phenomena\". In works such as La Nativit\u00e9 du Seigneur (1935) and Quatre \u00e9tudes de rythme (1949\u201350), he simultaneously employs motifs with lengths given by different prime numbers to create unpredictable rhythms: the primes 41, 43, 47 and 53 appear in the third \u00e9tude, \"Neumes rythmiques\". According to Messiaen this way of composing was \"inspired by the movements of nature, movements of free and unequal durations\".", "qas": [{"question": "In which etude of Neumes rythmiques do the primes 41, 43, 47 and 53 appear in?", "id": "5729a3716aef05140015506d", "answers": [{"text": "the third \u00e9tude", "answer_start": 405}, {"text": "third", "answer_start": 409}, {"text": "third", "answer_start": 409}, {"text": "third", "answer_start": 409}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Rhine", "paragraphs": [{"context": "The dominant economic sectors in the Middle Rhine area are viniculture and tourism. The Rhine Gorge between R\u00fcdesheim am Rhein and Koblenz is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Near Sankt Goarshausen, the Rhine flows around the famous rock Lorelei. With its outstanding architectural monuments, the slopes full of vines, settlements crowded on the narrow river banks and scores of castles lined up along the top of the steep slopes, the Middle Rhine Valley can be considered the epitome of the Rhine romanticism.", "qas": [{"question": "There's a UNESCO World Heritage site in the Rhine Gorge between the Koblenz and what?", "id": "572f6ec7a23a5019007fc622", "answers": [{"text": "R\u00fcdesheim am Rhein", "answer_start": 108}, {"text": "R\u00fcdesheim am Rhein", "answer_start": 108}, {"text": "R\u00fcdesheim am Rhein", "answer_start": 108}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Most of the Rhine's current course was not under the ice during the last Ice Age; although, its source must still have been a glacier. A tundra, with Ice Age flora and fauna, stretched across middle Europe, from Asia to the Atlantic Ocean. Such was the case during the Last Glacial Maximum, ca. 22,000\u201314,000 yr BP, when ice-sheets covered Scandinavia, the Baltics, Scotland and the Alps, but left the space between as open tundra. The loess or wind-blown dust over that tundra, settled in and around the Rhine Valley, contributing to its current agricultural usefulness.", "qas": [{"question": "What stretched across middle Europe in the last ice age?", "id": "572fff45947a6a140053cf27", "answers": [{"text": "tundra", "answer_start": 137}, {"text": "tundra", "answer_start": 137}, {"text": "A tundra", "answer_start": 135}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Scottish_Parliament", "paragraphs": [{"context": "Under the terms of the Scotland Act 1978, an elected assembly would be set up in Edinburgh provided that the majority of the Scottish electorate voted for it in a referendum to be held on 1 March 1979 that represented at least 40% of the total electorate. The 1979 Scottish devolution referendum to establish a devolved Scottish Assembly failed. Although the vote was 51.6% in favour of a Scottish Assembly, this figure did not equal the 40% of the total electorate threshold deemed necessary to pass the measure, as 32.9% of the eligible voting population did not, or had been unable to, vote.", "qas": [{"question": "Where was an elected assembly to be set up, under the terms of the Scotland Act of 1978?", "id": "572fadcbb2c2fd1400568329", "answers": [{"text": "Edinburgh", "answer_start": 81}, {"text": "Edinburgh", "answer_start": 81}, {"text": "Edinburgh", "answer_start": 81}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Stage 3 is the final stage of the bill and is considered at a meeting of the whole Parliament. This stage comprises two parts: consideration of amendments to the bill as a general debate, and a final vote on the bill. Opposition members can table \"wrecking amendments\" to the bill, designed to thwart further progress and take up parliamentary time, to cause the bill to fall without a final vote being taken. After a general debate on the final form of the bill, members proceed to vote at Decision Time on whether they agree to the general principles of the final bill.", "qas": [{"question": "When do members proceed to vote on whether they agree to the principles of the final bill?", "id": "572fd1c4947a6a140053cd06", "answers": [{"text": "Decision Time", "answer_start": 491}, {"text": "Decision Time", "answer_start": 491}, {"text": "After a general debate on the final form of the bill", "answer_start": 410}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The party, or parties, that hold the majority of seats in the Parliament forms the Scottish Government. In contrast to many other parliamentary systems, Parliament elects a First Minister from a number of candidates at the beginning of each parliamentary term (after a general election). Any member can put their name forward to be First Minister, and a vote is taken by all members of Parliament. Normally, the leader of the largest party is returned as First Minister, and head of the Scottish Government. Theoretically, Parliament also elects the Scottish Ministers who form the government of Scotland and sit in the Scottish cabinet, but such ministers are, in practice, appointed to their roles by the First Minister. Junior ministers, who do not attend cabinet, are also appointed to assist Scottish ministers in their departments. Most ministers and their juniors are drawn from amongst the elected MSPs, with the exception of Scotland's Chief Law Officers: the Lord Advocate and the Solicitor General. Whilst the First Minister chooses the ministers \u2013 and may decide to remove them at any time \u2013 the formal appointment or dismissal is made by the Sovereign.", "qas": [{"question": "Other than Scotland's Chief Law Officer, from whence are most ministers drawn from amongst?", "id": "572fd47fa23a5019007fca58", "answers": [{"text": "elected MSPs", "answer_start": 898}, {"text": "the elected MSPs", "answer_start": 894}, {"text": "amongst the elected MSPs", "answer_start": 886}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Under the Scotland Act 1998, ordinary general elections for the Scottish Parliament are held on the first Thursday in May every four years (1999, 2003, 2007 and so on). The date of the poll may be varied by up to one month either way by the Monarch on the proposal of the Presiding Officer. If the Parliament itself resolves that it should be dissolved (with at least two-thirds of the Members voting in favour), or if the Parliament fails to nominate one of its members to be First Minister within 28 days of a General Election or of the position becoming vacant, the Presiding Officer proposes a date for an extraordinary general election and the Parliament is dissolved by the Queen by royal proclamation. Extraordinary general elections are in addition to ordinary general elections, unless held less than six months before the due date of an ordinary general election, in which case they supplant it. The following ordinary election reverts to the first Thursday in May, a multiple of four years after 1999 (i.e., 5 May 2011, 7 May 2015, etc.).", "qas": [{"question": "How many days does the Parliament have to nominate a First Minister after a General Election?", "id": "572fd6aa04bcaa1900d76da2", "answers": [{"text": "28", "answer_start": 499}, {"text": "28", "answer_start": 499}, {"text": "28 days", "answer_start": 499}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Several procedures enable the Scottish Parliament to scrutinise the Government. The First Minister or members of the cabinet can deliver statements to Parliament upon which MSPs are invited to question. For example, at the beginning of each parliamentary year, the First Minister delivers a statement to the chamber setting out the Government's legislative programme for the forthcoming year. After the statement has been delivered, the leaders of the opposition parties and other MSPs question the First Minister on issues related to the substance of the statement.", "qas": [{"question": "What do the leaders of the opposition parties and other MSPs question the First Minister about?", "id": "572fd73e947a6a140053cd35", "answers": [{"text": "issues related to the substance of the statement", "answer_start": 517}, {"text": "issues", "answer_start": 517}, {"text": "issues related to the substance of the statement", "answer_start": 517}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "A procedural consequence of the establishment of the Scottish Parliament is that Scottish MPs sitting in the UK House of Commons are able to vote on domestic legislation that applies only to England, Wales and Northern Ireland \u2013 whilst English, Scottish, Welsh and Northern Irish Westminster MPs are unable to vote on the domestic legislation of the Scottish Parliament. This phenomenon is known as the West Lothian question and has led to criticism. Following the Conservative victory in the 2015 UK election, standing orders of the House of Commons were changed to give MPs representing English constituencies a new \"veto\" over laws only affecting England.", "qas": [{"question": "What consequence of establishing the Scottish Parliament applies to Scottish MPs sitting in the UK House of Commons?", "id": "572fdd03a23a5019007fca9d", "answers": [{"text": "able to vote on domestic legislation that applies only to England, Wales and Northern Ireland", "answer_start": 133}, {"text": "able to vote on domestic legislation that applies only to England, Wales and Northern Ireland", "answer_start": 133}, {"text": "procedural consequence", "answer_start": 2}], "is_impossible": false}, {"question": "MPs representing English constituencies can only veto laws affecting which country? ", "id": "572fdd03a23a5019007fcaa1", "answers": [{"text": "England", "answer_start": 650}, {"text": "England", "answer_start": 650}, {"text": "England", "answer_start": 650}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Islamism", "paragraphs": [{"context": "Islamism, also known as Political Islam (Arabic: \u0625\u0633\u0644\u0627\u0645 \u0633\u064a\u0627\u0633\u064a\u200e isl\u0101m siy\u0101s\u012b), is an Islamic revival movement often characterized by moral conservatism, literalism, and the attempt \"to implement Islamic values in all spheres of life.\" Islamism favors the reordering of government and society in accordance with the Shari'a. The different Islamist movements have been described as \"oscillating between two poles\": at one end is a strategy of Islamization of society through state power seized by revolution or invasion; at the other \"reformist\" pole Islamists work to Islamize society gradually \"from the bottom up\". The movements have \"arguably altered the Middle East more than any trend since the modern states gained independence\", redefining \"politics and even borders\" according to one journalist (Robin Wright).", "qas": [{"question": "What have the two different Islamist movements been described as oscillating between?", "id": "572ff626947a6a140053ce91", "answers": [{"text": "poles", "answer_start": 403}, {"text": "two poles", "answer_start": 399}, {"text": "poles", "answer_start": 403}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Another major division within Islamism is between what Graham E. Fuller has described as the fundamentalist \"guardians of the tradition\" (Salafis, such as those in the Wahhabi movement) and the \"vanguard of change and Islamic reform\" centered around the Muslim Brotherhood. Olivier Roy argues that \"Sunni pan-Islamism underwent a remarkable shift in the second half of the 20th century\" when the Muslim Brotherhood movement and its focus on Islamisation of pan-Arabism was eclipsed by the Salafi movement with its emphasis on \"sharia rather than the building of Islamic institutions,\" and rejection of Shia Islam. Following the Arab Spring, Roy has described Islamism as \"increasingly interdependent\" with democracy in much of the Arab Muslim world, such that \"neither can now survive without the other.\" While Islamist political culture itself may not be democratic, Islamists need democratic elections to maintain their legitimacy. At the same time, their popularity is such that no government can call itself democratic that excludes mainstream Islamist groups.", "qas": [{"question": "What did Olivier Roy state underwent a remarkable shift in the second half of the 20th century?", "id": "572ff86004bcaa1900d76f66", "answers": [{"text": "Sunni pan-Islamism", "answer_start": 299}, {"text": "Sunni pan-Islamism", "answer_start": 299}, {"text": "Sunni pan-Islamism", "answer_start": 299}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The interpretation of Islam promoted by this funding was the strict, conservative Saudi-based Wahhabism or Salafism. In its harshest form it preached that Muslims should not only \"always oppose\" infidels \"in every way,\" but \"hate them for their religion ... for Allah's sake,\" that democracy \"is responsible for all the horrible wars of the 20th century,\" that Shia and other non-Wahhabi Muslims were infidels, etc. While this effort has by no means converted all, or even most Muslims to the Wahhabist interpretation of Islam, it has done much to overwhelm more moderate local interpretations, and has set the Saudi-interpretation of Islam as the \"gold standard\" of religion in minds of some or many Muslims.", "qas": [{"question": "What interpretation of Islam is, for many of the adherents, the \"gold standard\" of their religion?", "id": "572ffd9e04bcaa1900d76fcb", "answers": [{"text": "Saudi", "answer_start": 611}, {"text": "the Saudi-interpretation", "answer_start": 607}, {"text": "Saudi", "answer_start": 611}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Iqbal expressed fears that not only would secularism and secular nationalism weaken the spiritual foundations of Islam and Muslim society, but that India's Hindu-majority population would crowd out Muslim heritage, culture and political influence. In his travels to Egypt, Afghanistan, Palestine and Syria, he promoted ideas of greater Islamic political co-operation and unity, calling for the shedding of nationalist differences. Sir Muhammad Iqbal was elected president of the Muslim League in 1930 at its session in Allahabad as well as for the session in Lahore in 1932. In his Allahabad Address on 29 December 1930, Iqbal outlined a vision of an independent state for Muslim-majority provinces in northwestern India. This address later inspired the Pakistan movement.", "qas": [{"question": "Iqbal worried that India's mostly Hindu population would do what to Muslim heritage and culture?", "id": "572fffb1b2c2fd14005686fa", "answers": [{"text": "crowd out", "answer_start": 188}, {"text": "crowd out Muslim heritage", "answer_start": 188}, {"text": "crowd out", "answer_start": 188}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The quick and decisive defeat of the Arab troops during the Six-Day War by Israeli troops constituted a pivotal event in the Arab Muslim world. The defeat along with economic stagnation in the defeated countries, was blamed on the secular Arab nationalism of the ruling regimes. A steep and steady decline in the popularity and credibility of secular, socialist and nationalist politics ensued. Ba'athism, Arab socialism, and Arab nationalism suffered, and different democratic and anti-democratic Islamist movements inspired by Maududi and Sayyid Qutb gained ground.", "qas": [{"question": "The defeat of the Arab troops in the Six-Day War constituted what for the Arab Muslim world?", "id": "573005b9947a6a140053cf6b", "answers": [{"text": "a pivotal event", "answer_start": 102}, {"text": "a pivotal event in the Arab Muslim world", "answer_start": 102}, {"text": "pivotal event", "answer_start": 104}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Another factor in the early 1990s that worked to radicalize the Islamist movement was the Gulf War, which brought several hundred thousand US and allied non-Muslim military personnel to Saudi Arabian soil to put an end to Saddam Hussein's occupation of Kuwait. Prior to 1990 Saudi Arabia played an important role in restraining the many Islamist groups that received its aid. But when Saddam, secularist and Ba'athist dictator of neighboring Iraq, attacked Saudi Arabia (his enemy in the war), western troops came to protect the Saudi monarchy. Islamists accused the Saudi regime of being a puppet of the west.", "qas": [{"question": "Up until 1990, Saudi Arabia played an important role in restraining what groups?", "id": "57300f8504bcaa1900d770d3", "answers": [{"text": "Islamist", "answer_start": 337}, {"text": "Islamist", "answer_start": 337}, {"text": "Islamist", "answer_start": 337}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "For some decades prior to the First Palestine Intifada in 1987, the Muslim Brotherhood in Palestine took a \"quiescent\" stance towards Israel, focusing on preaching, education and social services, and benefiting from Israel's \"indulgence\" to build up a network of mosques and charitable organizations. As the First Intifada gathered momentum and Palestinian shopkeepers closed their shops in support of the uprising, the Brotherhood announced the formation of HAMAS (\"zeal\"), devoted to Jihad against Israel. Rather than being more moderate than the PLO, the 1988 Hamas charter took a more uncompromising stand, calling for the destruction of Israel and the establishment of an Islamic state in Palestine. It was soon competing with and then overtaking the PLO for control of the intifada. The Brotherhood's base of devout middle class found common cause with the impoverished youth of the intifada in their cultural conservatism and antipathy for activities of the secular middle class such as drinking alcohol and going about without hijab.", "qas": [{"question": "Until 1987, what stance did the Muslim Brotherhood in Palestine take towards Israel?", "id": "5730208fa23a5019007fcded", "answers": [{"text": "quiescent", "answer_start": 108}, {"text": "quiescent", "answer_start": 108}, {"text": "quiescent", "answer_start": 108}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "In its focus on the Caliphate, the party takes a different view of Muslim history than some other Islamists such as Muhammad Qutb. HT sees Islam's pivotal turning point as occurring not with the death of Ali, or one of the other four rightly guided Caliphs in the 7th century, but with the abolition of the Ottoman Caliphate in 1924. This is believed to have ended the true Islamic system, something for which it blames \"the disbelieving (Kafir) colonial powers\" working through Turkish modernist Mustafa Kemal Atat\u00fcrk.", "qas": [{"question": "The abolition of the Ottoman Caliphate is believed to have ended what system?", "id": "57302e45947a6a140053d231", "answers": [{"text": "true Islamic", "answer_start": 369}, {"text": "the true Islamic system", "answer_start": 365}, {"text": "true Islamic", "answer_start": 369}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Warsaw", "paragraphs": [{"context": "The first historical reference to Warsaw dates back to the year 1313, at a time when Krak\u00f3w served as the Polish capital city. Due to its central location between the Polish\u2013Lithuanian Commonwealth's capitals of Krak\u00f3w and Vilnius, Warsaw became the capital of the Commonwealth and of the Crown of the Kingdom of Poland when King Sigismund III Vasa moved his court from Krak\u00f3w to Warsaw in 1596. After the Third Partition of Poland in 1795, Warsaw was incorporated into the Kingdom of Prussia. In 1806 during the Napoleonic Wars, the city became the official capital of the Grand Duchy of Warsaw, a puppet state of the First French Empire established by Napoleon Bonaparte. In accordance with the decisions of the Congress of Vienna, the Russian Empire annexed Warsaw in 1815 and it became part of the \"Congress Kingdom\". Only in 1918 did it regain independence from the foreign rule and emerge as a new capital of the independent Republic of Poland. The German invasion in 1939, the massacre of the Jewish population and deportations to concentration camps led to the uprising in the Warsaw ghetto in 1943 and to the major and devastating Warsaw Uprising between August and October 1944. Warsaw gained the title of the \"Phoenix City\" because it has survived many wars, conflicts and invasions throughout its long history. Most notably, the city required painstaking rebuilding after the extensive damage it suffered in World War II, which destroyed 85% of its buildings. On 9 November 1940, the city was awarded Poland's highest military decoration for heroism, the Virtuti Militari, during the Siege of Warsaw (1939).", "qas": [{"question": "Why did Warsaw gain the title of the \"Phoenix City\"?", "id": "5733140a4776f419006606e4", "answers": [{"text": "survived many wars, conflicts and invasions", "answer_start": 1250}, {"text": "it has survived many wars, conflicts and invasions", "answer_start": 1243}, {"text": "because it has survived many wars, conflicts and invasions throughout its long history", "answer_start": 1235}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "In 1529, Warsaw for the first time became the seat of the General Sejm, permanent from 1569. In 1573 the city gave its name to the Warsaw Confederation, formally establishing religious freedom in the Polish\u2013Lithuanian Commonwealth. Due to its central location between the Commonwealth's capitals of Krak\u00f3w and Vilnius, Warsaw became the capital of the Commonwealth and the Crown of the Kingdom of Poland when King Sigismund III Vasa moved his court from Krak\u00f3w to Warsaw in 1596. In the following years the town expanded towards the suburbs. Several private independent districts were established, the property of aristocrats and the gentry, which were ruled by their own laws. Three times between 1655\u20131658 the city was under siege and three times it was taken and pillaged by the Swedish, Brandenburgian and Transylvanian forces.", "qas": [{"question": "What year did King Sigismund III Vasa move his court to Warsaw?", "id": "5733266d4776f41900660716", "answers": [{"text": "1596", "answer_start": 474}, {"text": "1596", "answer_start": 474}, {"text": "1596", "answer_start": 474}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Warsaw was occupied by Germany from 4 August 1915 until November 1918. The Allied Armistice terms required in Article 12 that Germany withdraw from areas controlled by Russia in 1914, which included Warsaw. Germany did so, and underground leader Pi\u0142sudski returned to Warsaw on 11 November and set up what became the Second Polish Republic, with Warsaw the capital. In the course of the Polish-Bolshevik War of 1920, the huge Battle of Warsaw was fought on the eastern outskirts of the city in which the capital was successfully defended and the Red Army defeated. Poland stopped by itself the full brunt of the Red Army and defeated an idea of the \"export of the revolution\".", "qas": [{"question": "What did Article 12 of the Allied Armistice terms require Germany to withdraw from?", "id": "57332b66d058e614000b5759", "answers": [{"text": "areas controlled by Russia in 1914", "answer_start": 148}, {"text": "areas controlled by Russia in 1914", "answer_start": 148}, {"text": "areas controlled by Russia", "answer_start": 148}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "After World War II, under a Communist regime set up by the conquering Soviets, the \"Bricks for Warsaw\" campaign was initiated, and large prefabricated housing projects were erected in Warsaw to address the housing shortage, along with other typical buildings of an Eastern Bloc city, such as the Palace of Culture and Science, a gift from the Soviet Union. The city resumed its role as the capital of Poland and the country's centre of political and economic life. Many of the historic streets, buildings, and churches were restored to their original form. In 1980, Warsaw's historic Old Town was inscribed onto UNESCO's World Heritage list.", "qas": [{"question": "What list was Warsaw's Old Town inscribed onto in 1980?", "id": "57332f81d058e614000b577a", "answers": [{"text": "UNESCO's World Heritage list", "answer_start": 612}, {"text": "UNESCO's World Heritage", "answer_start": 612}, {"text": "UNESCO's World Heritage", "answer_start": 612}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Other green spaces in the city include the Botanic Garden and the University Library garden. They have extensive botanical collection of rare domestic and foreign plants, while a palm house in the New Orangery displays plants of subtropics from all over the world. Besides, within the city borders, there are also: Pole Mokotowskie (a big park in the northern Mokot\u00f3w, where was the first horse racetrack and then the airport), Park Ujazdowski (close to the Sejm and John Lennon street), Park of Culture and Rest in Powsin, by the southern city border, Park Skaryszewski by the right Vistula bank, in Praga. The oldest park in Praga, the Praga Park, was established in 1865\u20131871 and designed by Jan Dobrowolski. In 1927 a zoological garden (Ogr\u00f3d Zoologiczny) was established on the park grounds, and in 1952 a bear run, still open today.", "qas": [{"question": "Where is a palm house with subtropic plants from all over the world on display?", "id": "573368044776f41900660a2a", "answers": [{"text": "New Orangery", "answer_start": 197}, {"text": "New Orangery", "answer_start": 197}, {"text": "New Orangery", "answer_start": 197}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The FSO Car Factory was established in 1951. A number of vehicles have been assembled there over the decades, including the Warszawa, Syrena, Fiat 125p (under license from Fiat, later renamed FSO 125p when the license expired) and the Polonez. The last two models listed were also sent abroad and assembled in a number of other countries, including Egypt and Colombia. In 1995 the factory was purchased by the South Korean car manufacturer Daewoo, which assembled the Tico, Espero, Nubia, Tacuma, Leganza, Lanos and Matiz there for the European market. In 2005 the factory was sold to AvtoZAZ, a Ukrainian car manufacturer which assembled there the Chevrolet Aveo. The license for the production of the Aveo expired in February 2011 and has since not been renewed. Currently the company is defunct.", "qas": [{"question": "What South Korean car manufacturer purchased the factor in 1995?", "id": "573383d0d058e614000b5c37", "answers": [{"text": "Daewoo", "answer_start": 440}, {"text": "Daewoo", "answer_start": 440}, {"text": "Daewoo", "answer_start": 440}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Like many cities in Central and Eastern Europe, infrastructure in Warsaw suffered considerably during its time as an Eastern Bloc economy \u2013 though it is worth mentioning that the initial Three-Year Plan to rebuild Poland (especially Warsaw) was a major success, but what followed was very much the opposite. However, over the past decade Warsaw has seen many improvements due to solid economic growth, an increase in foreign investment as well as funding from the European Union. In particular, the city's metro, roads, sidewalks, health care facilities and sanitation facilities have improved markedly.", "qas": [{"question": "Why has Warsaw seen many improvements over the past decade?", "id": "573399b54776f41900660e66", "answers": [{"text": "solid economic growth", "answer_start": 379}, {"text": "solid economic growth", "answer_start": 379}, {"text": "economic growth", "answer_start": 385}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "As interesting examples of expositions the most notable are: the world's first Museum of Posters boasting one of the largest collections of art posters in the world, Museum of Hunting and Riding and the Railway Museum. From among Warsaw's 60 museums, the most prestigious ones are National Museum with a collection of works whose origin ranges in time from antiquity till the present epoch as well as one of the best collections of paintings in the country including some paintings from Adolf Hitler's private collection, and Museum of the Polish Army whose set portrays the history of arms.", "qas": [{"question": "What does the world's first Museum of Posters have one of the largest collections of in the world?", "id": "57339eb9d058e614000b5ef6", "answers": [{"text": "art posters", "answer_start": 140}, {"text": "art posters", "answer_start": 140}, {"text": "art posters", "answer_start": 140}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "Their local rivals, Polonia Warsaw, have significantly fewer supporters, yet they managed to win Ekstraklasa Championship in 2000. They also won the country\u2019s championship in 1946, and won the cup twice as well. Polonia's home venue is located at Konwiktorska Street, a ten-minute walk north from the Old Town. Polonia was relegated from the country's top flight in 2013 because of their disastrous financial situation. They are now playing in the 4th league (5th tier in Poland) -the bottom professional league in the National \u2013 Polish Football Association (PZPN) structure.", "qas": [{"question": "Why was Polonia relegated from the country's top flight in 2013?", "id": "5733a32bd058e614000b5f36", "answers": [{"text": "disastrous financial situation", "answer_start": 388}, {"text": "their disastrous financial situation", "answer_start": 382}, {"text": "disastrous financial situation.", "answer_start": 388}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "French_and_Indian_War", "paragraphs": [{"context": "In between the French and the British, large areas were dominated by native tribes. To the north, the Mi'kmaq and the Abenaki were engaged in Father Le Loutre's War and still held sway in parts of Nova Scotia, Acadia, and the eastern portions of the province of Canada, as well as much of present-day Maine. The Iroquois Confederation dominated much of present-day Upstate New York and the Ohio Country, although the latter also included Algonquian-speaking populations of Delaware and Shawnee, as well as Iroquoian-speaking Mingo. These tribes were formally under Iroquois rule, and were limited by them in authority to make agreements.", "qas": [{"question": "What tribes were in Father Le Loutre's War?", "id": "5733d7cbd058e614000b63ac", "answers": [{"text": "Mi'kmaq and the Abenaki", "answer_start": 102}, {"text": "Mi'kmaq and the Abenaki", "answer_start": 102}, {"text": "the Mi'kmaq and the Abenaki", "answer_start": 98}, {"text": "Mi'kmaq and the Abenaki", "answer_start": 102}, {"text": "the Mi'kmaq and the Abenaki", "answer_start": 98}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "British victories continued in all theaters in the Annus Mirabilis of 1759, when they finally captured Ticonderoga, James Wolfe defeated Montcalm at Quebec (in a battle that claimed the lives of both commanders), and victory at Fort Niagara successfully cut off the French frontier forts further to the west and south. The victory was made complete in 1760 when, despite losing outside Quebec City in the Battle of Sainte-Foy, the British were able to prevent the arrival of French relief ships in the naval Battle of the Restigouche while armies marched on Montreal from three sides.", "qas": [{"question": "What battle outside Quebec City did British lose in 1760?", "id": "573406d1d058e614000b6803", "answers": [{"text": "Battle of Sainte-Foy", "answer_start": 405}, {"text": "Battle of Sainte-Foy", "answer_start": 405}, {"text": "Sainte-Foy", "answer_start": 415}, {"text": "Battle of Sainte-Foy", "answer_start": 405}, {"text": "Battle of Sainte-Foy", "answer_start": 405}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}, {"title": "Force", "paragraphs": [{"context": "For instance, while traveling in a moving vehicle at a constant velocity, the laws of physics do not change from being at rest. A person can throw a ball straight up in the air and catch it as it falls down without worrying about applying a force in the direction the vehicle is moving. This is true even though another person who is observing the moving vehicle pass by also observes the ball follow a curving parabolic path in the same direction as the motion of the vehicle. It is the inertia of the ball associated with its constant velocity in the direction of the vehicle's motion that ensures the ball continues to move forward even as it is thrown up and falls back down. From the perspective of the person in the car, the vehicle and everything inside of it is at rest: It is the outside world that is moving with a constant speed in the opposite direction. Since there is no experiment that can distinguish whether it is the vehicle that is at rest or the outside world that is at rest, the two situations are considered to be physically indistinguishable. Inertia therefore applies equally well to constant velocity motion as it does to rest.", "qas": [{"question": "What applies to equally to constant velocity motion as it does to rest.", "id": "5737477bc3c5551400e51ea6", "answers": [{"text": "Inertia", "answer_start": 1067}, {"text": "Inertia", "answer_start": 1067}, {"text": "Inertia", "answer_start": 1067}, {"text": "Inertia", "answer_start": 1067}, {"text": "Inertia", "answer_start": 1067}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "In modern particle physics, forces and the acceleration of particles are explained as a mathematical by-product of exchange of momentum-carrying gauge bosons. With the development of quantum field theory and general relativity, it was realized that force is a redundant concept arising from conservation of momentum (4-momentum in relativity and momentum of virtual particles in quantum electrodynamics). The conservation of momentum can be directly derived from the homogeneity or symmetry of space and so is usually considered more fundamental than the concept of a force. Thus the currently known fundamental forces are considered more accurately to be \"fundamental interactions\".:199\u2013128 When particle A emits (creates) or absorbs (annihilates) virtual particle B, a momentum conservation results in recoil of particle A making impression of repulsion or attraction between particles A A' exchanging by B. This description applies to all forces arising from fundamental interactions. While sophisticated mathematical descriptions are needed to predict, in full detail, the accurate result of such interactions, there is a conceptually simple way to describe such interactions through the use of Feynman diagrams. In a Feynman diagram, each matter particle is represented as a straight line (see world line) traveling through time, which normally increases up or to the right in the diagram. Matter and anti-matter particles are identical except for their direction of propagation through the Feynman diagram. World lines of particles intersect at interaction vertices, and the Feynman diagram represents any force arising from an interaction as occurring at the vertex with an associated instantaneous change in the direction of the particle world lines. Gauge bosons are emitted away from the vertex as wavy lines and, in the case of virtual particle exchange, are absorbed at an adjacent vertex.", "qas": [{"question": "How are the particle forces and accelerations explained as by gauge bosons exchange?", "id": "57377ec7c3c5551400e51f05", "answers": [{"text": "mathematical by-product", "answer_start": 88}, {"text": "mathematical by-product of exchange", "answer_start": 88}, {"text": "a mathematical by-product of exchange of momentum", "answer_start": 86}, {"text": "mathematical by-product of exchange", "answer_start": 88}], "is_impossible": false}]}, {"context": "The origin of electric and magnetic fields would not be fully explained until 1864 when James Clerk Maxwell unified a number of earlier theories into a set of 20 scalar equations, which were later reformulated into 4 vector equations by Oliver Heaviside and Josiah Willard Gibbs. These \"Maxwell Equations\" fully described the sources of the fields as being stationary and moving charges, and the interactions of the fields themselves. This led Maxwell to discover that electric and magnetic fields could be \"self-generating\" through a wave that traveled at a speed that he calculated to be the speed of light. This insight united the nascent fields of electromagnetic theory with optics and led directly to a complete description of the electromagnetic spectrum.", "qas": [{"question": "How many vector equations did Heaviside and Gibbs reformilate Maxwell's 20 scalar equtions into?", "id": "57378e311c456719005744b2", "answers": [{"text": "4", "answer_start": 215}, {"text": "4", "answer_start": 215}, {"text": "4", "answer_start": 215}, {"text": "4", "answer_start": 215}], "is_impossible": false}]}]}]}